A patient with abdominal pain and diarrhea had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods. What is the most likely causative agent?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with abdominal pain and diarrhea had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. Shigella causes dysentery, characterized by bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Shigella is a non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod. B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea. C: Escherichia coli, a common gut bacteria, can cause diarrhea but typically ferments lactose. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of gastrointestinal infection and is not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea.

Question 2 of 9

Which one is an example of an immunomodulator:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B (Gamma Interferon) is the correct answer: 1. Gamma Interferon is a type of immunomodulator that helps regulate the immune response. 2. It activates macrophages and enhances the immune system's ability to fight infections. 3. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. 4. Hexacima and Pentaxim are combination vaccines, not immunomodulators. In summary, Gamma Interferon is the correct answer as it directly influences the immune response, while the other choices are not immunomodulators.

Question 3 of 9

Granulomas containing lymphocytes and macrophages were detected during analysis of skin biopsy material. Among macrophages there are large cells with fat inclusions, which contain microorganisms in spheric packages (Virchow's cells). The following disease is based on the described type of hypersensitivity:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. Granulomas with lymphocytes and macrophages containing Virchow's cells (large cells with fat inclusions containing microorganisms) are classic findings in tuberculosis. Leprosy (A) typically presents with granulomas but with different histopathological features. Syphilis (B) does not usually form granulomas in the skin. Rhinoscleroma (D) is a chronic bacterial infection characterized by nodular lesions but does not typically involve Virchow's cells as seen in tuberculosis.

Question 4 of 9

Bacteria that have been identified as frequently responsible for nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system include:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Staphylococcus aureus) because they are known to commonly cause nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections that can ascend to the reproductive system. Gardnerella vaginalis is associated with bacterial vaginosis, a common infection of the vagina. Staphylococcus aureus can cause infections in the reproductive system through various means. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Streptococcus faecalis, Klebsiella oxytoca, and Serratia marcescens are not commonly associated with reproductive system infections. C: Clostridium tetani and Bacillus cereus are not typically involved in reproductive system infections. D: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes sexually transmitted infections, Helicobacter pylori causes gastrointestinal issues, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more

Question 5 of 9

Microscopy of dental plaque revealed unicellular organisms. Their cytoplasm had two distinct layers, barely visible core, wide pseudopodia. The patient is most likely to have:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trichomonas tenax. Trichomonas tenax is a flagellated protozoan that is commonly found in the oral cavity, specifically in dental plaque. The description provided in the question matches the characteristics of Trichomonas tenax, such as unicellular structure, distinct layers in the cytoplasm, wide pseudopodia, and barely visible core. Entamoeba gingivalis (choice A) and Entamoeba histolytica (choice B) are amoebas, not flagellated protozoa, and they do not exhibit the characteristics described in the question. Lamblia (choice C) is also an incorrect choice as it is a different type of protozoan that does not match the description provided.

Question 6 of 9

A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species. In this case, the description of dense yellow-green colored focus, white granules in purulent masses, and presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthome cells, and macrophages all match the characteristics of actinomycosis. Actinomycosis typically presents with abscess formation containing sulfur granules, which are yellowish and granular. The other choices (B: Furuncle, C: Carbuncle, D: Syphilis) do not fit the clinical and histological features described in the question, making them incorrect options.

Question 7 of 9

Anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase are;

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Relenza and Tamiflu. Both Relenza and Tamiflu are anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, thereby inhibiting its replication and spread. Maxi Grip (A) is not an anti-influenza drug, Theraflu (B) contains different active ingredients, and Amantadine and Rimantadine (C) target a different viral protein, M2 ion channel. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically target neuraminidase for influenza treatment.

Question 8 of 9

A smear of sputum from the patient with suspected lobar pneumonia was stained with the use of the following stains and reagents: solution of gentian violet, Lugol's solution, 96o alcohol, water-magenta. What staining method was applied in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining method. This method involves staining with gentian violet, followed by Lugol's solution, 96% alcohol decolorization, and counterstaining with safranin or water-magenta. This staining sequence allows for the differentiation of bacteria based on their cell wall composition. In the case of lobar pneumonia, the causative agent is typically a bacterium with a cell wall that retains the crystal violet stain after decolorization with alcohol, indicating a Gram-positive bacterium. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Ziehl-Nielsen staining is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, not for lobar pneumonia. C: Romanovsky staining is primarily used in the identification of blood cells and blood parasites, not for bacteria. D: Neisser staining is not a commonly used staining method in microbiology for bacterial identification.

Question 9 of 9

Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Galactomannan is a polysaccharide found in Aspergillus cell walls and is detected in patients with invasive aspergillosis. Free mannan is a polysaccharide found in Candida cell walls and is detected in patients with candidiasis. Therefore, detection of galactomannan and free mannan is specific for diagnosing Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as HIV infection, syphilis, and leptospirosis do not involve the detection of galactomannan or free mannan for diagnosis.

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