ATI RN
microbiology an evolving science test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with abdominal pain and diarrhea had a stool culture revealing non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. Shigella causes dysentery, characterized by bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Shigella is a non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod. B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea. C: Escherichia coli, a common gut bacteria, can cause diarrhea but typically ferments lactose. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of gastrointestinal infection and is not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea.
Question 2 of 9
What is a common characteristic of spore-forming bacteria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Resistance to heat and dehydration. Spore-forming bacteria form spores as a survival mechanism in harsh conditions. These spores are highly resistant to heat and dehydration, allowing the bacteria to withstand extreme environments. This characteristic is essential for their long-term survival and ability to persist in unfavorable conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because not all spore-forming bacteria produce toxins, have flagella, or are capable of photosynthesis. These characteristics are not exclusive to spore-forming bacteria and do not define them as a group.
Question 3 of 9
The presence of E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: colonization. E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx indicate colonization rather than being part of the normal resident flora. Colonization refers to the presence of these bacteria on body surfaces without causing harm. They are not considered normal flora in the pharynx but rather transient or opportunistic pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because these bacteria are not part of the normal resident flora of the pharynx. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that these bacteria are both normal flora and colonization, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as there is evidence of bacterial presence, indicating colonization.
Question 4 of 9
Risk factor for the development of infection is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: all of them. Malignant disease weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Cytostatic therapy suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Premature birth can lead to underdeveloped immune systems, making babies more prone to infections. Therefore, all three choices are risk factors for the development of infections. Other choices are incorrect because each individual risk factor listed contributes to an increased susceptibility to infections.
Question 5 of 9
Chitin is a component of the cell wall of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chitin is a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of fungi. Bacteria have cell walls made of peptidoglycan, not chitin. Viruses do not have cell walls as they are acellular entities. Therefore, the correct answer is A: fungi.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacteria is responsible for causing tuberculosis because it is the specific pathogen known to infect the lungs and other parts of the body, leading to the disease. Mycobacterium tuberculosis has unique cell wall components that allow it to evade the immune system and survive in the host. Neisseria meningitidis (B) causes meningitis, not tuberculosis. Salmonella enterica (C) causes food poisoning, not tuberculosis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (D) causes pneumonia, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct answer is A based on the specific characteristics and pathogenicity of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Question 7 of 9
A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.
Question 8 of 9
The classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia due to its ability to infect the lungs and cause inflammation. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common pathogen known for causing pneumonia in both adults and children. It is characterized by the presence of a capsule that helps it evade the host immune system. Choice A, Chlamydia pneumoniae, is not the correct answer as it is more commonly associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice C, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, is also associated with atypical pneumonia and not croupous pneumonia. Choice D, Staphylococcus aureus, can cause pneumonia, but it is not the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia.
Question 9 of 9
What type of immunity is responsible for the agglutination of viruses:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Humoral immunity. Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells that can bind to antigens on viruses, leading to their agglutination. This process prevents the spread of the virus in the body. Passive immunity (A) involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, not the production of antibodies. Cell-mediated immunity (C) involves the activation of T cells, not the direct agglutination of viruses. Non-specific immunity (D) refers to general defense mechanisms like inflammation and fever, not targeted agglutination of viruses.