A patient with a wound infection had a Gram-positive cocci isolated from the sample. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci that is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it the most likely causative agent for the wound infection. Catalase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme catalase, which helps break down hydrogen peroxide. Coagulase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme coagulase, which causes the plasma proteins to clot. Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause a wound infection. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative, and Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative, so they are less likely to be the causative agent.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: EBV. Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by bacteria, not viruses like Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The main pathogens involved in osteomyelitis are typically Staphylococcus aureus, including Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), Haemophilus influenzae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. EBV is not a causative agent of osteomyelitis. It is crucial to differentiate between bacterial and viral etiologies in infectious diseases to guide appropriate treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peptidoglycan. Bacterial cell walls are primarily composed of peptidoglycan, a unique molecule consisting of alternating sugar chains connected by peptide cross-links. This structure provides rigidity and shape to the cell wall, protecting the bacterial cell from osmotic pressure. Lipopolysaccharides (A) are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. Cellulose (B) is a component of plant cell walls, not bacterial cell walls. Chitin (D) is a polysaccharide found in the exoskeletons of arthropods and fungi, not in bacterial cell walls.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Incorrect - The complement system is not directly involved in the viral neutralization reaction. B: Correct - Specific antibodies neutralize viruses by blocking their ability to infect cells. C: Incorrect - Antibodies are titrated, but only one serum sample is required for neutralization testing. D: Incorrect - Viral neutralization is primarily used to measure antibody response, not to identify newly isolated viruses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: caliciviruses. Caliciviruses are known to be (+) ssRNA viruses that cause gastroenteritis in a wide range of animals, including birds, cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, cows, and humans. These viruses are highly contagious and can spread through contaminated food or water. Rotaviruses (A) are also a common cause of gastroenteritis, but they are not exclusively isolated from the mentioned animals. Adenoviruses (C) typically cause respiratory or eye infections, not gastroenteritis. Noroviruses (D) are also a major cause of gastroenteritis in humans, but they are not commonly found in animals other than humans.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why C is correct: 1. Immunomodulators regulate the immune response. 2. Gamma-interferon is a cytokine that enhances immune function. 3. It helps fight infections and regulate inflammation. 4. Pentaxim and Hexacima are combination vaccines. 5. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. Summary: - A and B are combination vaccines. - D is an antibiotic. - C is the correct answer as gamma-interferon is an immunomodulator that regulates the immune response.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This is because Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains bacterium that is catalase-negative, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing bacterial endocarditis. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, so it is unlikely in this case. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium, but it is catalase-negative, which is not consistent with the given information. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, making it an unlikely causative agent.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia enterocolitica. Y. enterocolitica is known to cause gastroenteritis and diarrhea in humans. It is often associated with contaminated food or water. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, not diarrhea. Corynebacterium diphtheria causes respiratory diphtheria. Neisseria meningitidis is associated with meningitis and septicemia, not diarrhea. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and history, Y. enterocolitica is the most likely cause of the diarrhea in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria species. Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on cell wall composition. Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane, making them appear pink under the microscope. Streptococcus species (B) are Gram-positive cocci with a thick peptidoglycan layer, appearing purple. Bacillus (C) and Clostridium (D) species are Gram-positive rods, not Gram-negative cocci. Thus, the correct answer is A because Neisseria species are the only Gram-negative cocci among the choices provided.