A patient with a wound infection had a Gram-positive cocci isolated from the sample. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci that is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it the most likely causative agent for the wound infection. Catalase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme catalase, which helps break down hydrogen peroxide. Coagulase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme coagulase, which causes the plasma proteins to clot. Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause a wound infection. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative, and Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative, so they are less likely to be the causative agent.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: genes with plasmid location. Clostridium tetani produces exotoxins through genes located on plasmids. Plasmids are extrachromosomal genetic elements that carry additional genes. These genes encode for the production of exotoxins in Clostridium tetani. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Clostridium tetani does produce exotoxins, it does not have only endotoxin activity, and the genes responsible for exotoxin production are located on plasmids, not solely on the chromosome or both chromosome and plasmid.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. Group I organisms are classified based on their low infectious doses and potential for bioterrorism. H. pylori is known to cause gastric ulcers and is categorized as a Group I organism due to its ability to cause disease at low doses. A: Francisella tularensis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I. B: Clostridium difficile is not typically classified as a Group I organism. D: Bacillus anthracis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Interferon is a cell-specific protein that is produced and released from infected cells in response to viral infections. It acts extracellularly to interfere with viral replication, not to inactivate the virus itself. Interferon is not coded for by cellular DNA, but by viral RNA during infection. Therefore, the correct answer, D, is that interferon is not virus-specific but is cell-specific. This is because interferon can be produced by various cell types in response to different types of viral infections, making it a broad-spectrum antiviral defense mechanism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of a capsule points to S. pneumoniae as it has a polysaccharide capsule. 3. S. pneumoniae commonly causes sore throat. 4. Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are not typically associated with sore throat.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Clostridium difficile) Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is primarily associated with gastrointestinal infections, particularly antibiotic-associated colitis. 2. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are commonly associated with skin infections. 3. Staphylococcus aureus can cause impetigo, boils, and cellulitis. 4. Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene. 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause hot tub folliculitis and swimmer's ear.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: phialospores. Phialospores are conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell called a phialide. This structure is characteristic of fungi in the genus Penicillium. Arthrospores (A) are formed by the fragmentation of hyphae, porospores (B) are not a recognized term in mycology, and blastospores (D) are produced by budding from yeast cells. Therefore, C is the correct choice based on the specific description provided in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci that is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it the most likely causative agent for the wound infection. Catalase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme catalase, which helps break down hydrogen peroxide. Coagulase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme coagulase, which causes the plasma proteins to clot. Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause a wound infection. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative, and Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative, so they are less likely to be the causative agent.