ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a suspected spinal injury is found unconscious. Which of the following actions should be taken first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient with a suspected spinal injury is found unconscious, the priority action is to secure the airway without jeopardizing the cervical spine. A jaw thrust maneuver is the appropriate technique to open the airway in this situation because it allows for the maintenance of neutral alignment of the cervical spine while ensuring proper ventilation. Moving the patient to a flat surface or applying a cervical collar could potentially worsen the spinal injury if not done correctly, and checking for responsiveness should only be done after ensuring a patent airway. Therefore, the safest and most effective initial action is to perform a jaw thrust maneuver to establish a clear airway.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite often found in contaminated water sources. This parasite is known to cause watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea in infected individuals. The presence of oocysts in the stool sample is characteristic of Cryptosporidium infection. Other parasitic infections may present with similar symptoms, but in this case, the most likely culprit based on the exposure history and laboratory findings is Cryptosporidium parvum.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with a well-demarcated, hyperpigmented patch with irregular borders and asymmetric color distribution on the face. The lesion has increased in size over the past few months. Which of the following conditions is most concerning for this presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation described, including a well-demarcated, hyperpigmented patch with irregular borders, asymmetric color distribution, and increase in size over a short period, is concerning for melanoma. Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment in the skin. The irregular borders, color variation, and growth over time are classic signs of melanoma. Melanomas are potentially dangerous and should be evaluated promptly by a healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to distinguish melanoma from other benign lesions like melanocytic nevus (mole), lentigo simplex, and seborrheic keratosis, as early detection and treatment of melanoma can significantly impact patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 9
The physician orders cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) for the client. The nurse instructs the client that the most effective administration schedule is ________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) is a mast cell stabilizer that is commonly used to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as sneezing, itching, and congestion. It works best when used before exposure to allergens. The most effective administration schedule for nasal crom is to start using it just after allergy symptoms begin, with a dose of twice-a-day. This helps to prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances from mast cells, thereby reducing allergic symptoms. Using nasal crom in this way can help provide relief and improve the overall management of allergic rhinitis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which dietary choice indicates understanding of the prescribed diet?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with chronic kidney disease prescribed a low-protein diet should avoid high-protein foods like grilled salmon, lentil soup, and beef stew. Chicken Caesar salad, on the other hand, typically contains a smaller amount of protein compared to the other options. This choice indicates an understanding of the need to limit protein intake while still enjoying a balanced meal. However, it is important to note that the quantity and portion sizes of high-protein ingredients in the salad should also be moderate to comply with a low-protein diet.
Question 6 of 9
A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe perineal pain despite analgesic medication. On assessment, the nurse observes ecchymosis and swelling of the perineum. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of persistent, severe perineal pain along with ecchymosis and swelling of the perineum can indicate a complication such as a hematoma. A hematoma is a collection of blood that can occur in the perineal area postpartum, usually as a result of trauma during delivery. It is essential to notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess the situation, provide appropriate treatment, and prevent further complications. Applying ice packs or administering additional analgesic medication may not address the underlying issue of a possible hematoma, so prompt medical evaluation is crucial in this situation.
Question 7 of 9
Which imaging modality is most commonly used to diagnose fractures of the long bones, such as the femur or tibia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: X-ray is the most commonly used imaging modality to diagnose fractures of the long bones, such as the femur or tibia. X-rays are readily available, fast, cost-effective, and provide detailed images of the bone structures. Fractures appear as breaks or discontinuities in the bone on X-ray images, making it an excellent tool for diagnosing bone fractures. In many cases, X-rays are sufficient to confirm the presence, location, and type of fracture, allowing for appropriate treatment planning. Other imaging modalities like MRI and CT scans may be used for further evaluation in complex cases, but X-ray remains the initial and primary choice for diagnosing long bone fractures.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The described presentation is classic for acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition is characterized by sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. The red eye, steamy cornea (corneal edema), and mid-dilated non-reactive pupil are consistent with acute angle-closure glaucoma. The sudden increase in intraocular pressure leads to impaired aqueous humor outflow, causing these symptoms. Immediate intervention is required to prevent permanent vision loss in such cases. Central retinal artery occlusion would present with sudden painless vision loss. Optic neuritis typically presents with vision loss and pain with eye movements. Corneal ulcer presents with eye discomfort, foreign body sensation, and may have a history of corneal trauma or contact lens wear.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with chronic respiratory failure secondary to severe restrictive lung disease requires long-term oxygen therapy to maintain adequate oxygenation. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices is most appropriate for delivering continuous supplemental oxygen in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate oxygen delivery device for a patient with chronic respiratory failure secondary to severe restrictive lung disease requiring continuous supplemental oxygen is a non-rebreather mask. A non-rebreather mask is designed to deliver high-flow oxygen and is typically used for short-term medical treatment in emergency situations or for critically ill patients. It is ideal for providing the highest concentration of oxygen available for inhalation, making it suitable for patients with severe hypoxemia.