ATI RN
mastering microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a sore throat had a throat smear stained by Neisser's method. Microscopy revealed rods with polar dark blue granules. What microorganism is likely responsible?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of rods with polar dark blue granules stained by Neisser's method indicates metachromatic granules consistent with Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The characteristic staining pattern is due to the presence of polar granules in the bacterial cells, a feature specific to Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium tetani, and Escherichia coli do not exhibit this staining pattern or morphology typical of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, making them incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 9
A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of this complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Fluconazole): Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections caused by Candida albicans. It targets the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its structure and function. This makes it an effective treatment for oral thrush, which is caused by Candida overgrowth in the oral mucosa. The continuous use of antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to fungal overgrowth. Fluconazole specifically targets the yeast fungi without affecting bacteria, making it the appropriate choice for this complication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Biseptol - Biseptol is an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi like Candida albicans. C: Tetracycline - Tetracycline is also an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi. D: Furazolidone - Furazolidone is an antibiotic primarily used for treating bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral thrush caused by Candida
Question 3 of 9
One of the basic principles of chemotherapy is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Selective toxicity. Chemotherapy aims to target cancer cells while minimizing harm to healthy cells, known as selective toxicity. This principle is crucial to effectively treat cancer without causing excessive damage to the patient's body. Accumulation in the macroorganism (B) and causing allergies (C) are not fundamental principles of chemotherapy and can lead to harmful side effects. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the core objective of chemotherapy.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a deep tissue infection had a wound culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative points towards coagulase-negative staphylococci like Staphylococcus epidermidis. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, the most likely causative agent in this scenario is Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Question 5 of 9
Warts are commonly caused by the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Warts are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) due to its ability to infect the skin. 2. HPV infects the top layer of skin and causes the rapid growth of cells, leading to the formation of warts. 3. Herpesvirus (choice B) causes herpes, not warts. 4. HIV (choice C) weakens the immune system but does not directly cause warts. 5. Varicella-zoster virus (choice D) causes chickenpox and shingles, not warts. Summary: Choice A is correct as warts are primarily caused by HPV, which infects the skin cells. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different viral infections that do not lead to the development of warts.
Question 6 of 9
The Baltimore classification system places viruses into __________ groups.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Baltimore classification system categorizes viruses based on their genome type and replication strategy. It divides viruses into seven groups: Group I (dsDNA), Group II (ssDNA), Group III (dsRNA), Group IV (ssRNA(+)), Group V (ssRNA(-)), Group VI (ssRNA-RT), and Group VII (dsDNA-RT). Each group represents a distinct viral genome and replication method. Therefore, the correct answer is C. The other choices are incorrect because the Baltimore classification system specifically identifies viruses into seven groups, not four, five, or nine.
Question 7 of 9
The First-line tuberculosis drugs include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid and rifampicin. These drugs are considered first-line treatment for tuberculosis due to their high efficacy and low toxicity. Isoniazid targets the cell wall of the tuberculosis bacteria, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis. They are recommended by WHO as the first choice for treating tuberculosis. Choice B (Penicillin and erythromycin) is incorrect because these antibiotics are not effective against tuberculosis bacteria. Choice C (Trimethoprim and third generation cephalosporins) is incorrect because they are not considered first-line drugs for tuberculosis treatment. Choice D (All the listed above can be used depending on their resistance profile) is incorrect because only isoniazid and rifampicin are universally recognized as first-line drugs for tuberculosis regardless of resistance profile.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a folate antagonist?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trimethoprim. Trimethoprim is a folate antagonist that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme essential for folate metabolism in bacteria. This disrupts bacterial DNA synthesis, leading to bacteriostatic effects. Methyl Penicillin (A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic that interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis. Vancomycin (C) inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of cell wall precursors. Gentamicin (D) inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.
Question 9 of 9
A dentist examined a 5-year-old boy and found him to have a saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull. Both front maxillary incisors are peg-shaped and have a crescent-shaped notch in the cutting edge. Lymph nodes are not changed. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late congenital syphilis. The symptoms described align with late congenital syphilis, which includes saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull, peg-shaped incisors, and notched cutting edge. Lymph nodes not being affected is also consistent with late congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis (B) typically presents with more severe symptoms at birth or shortly after. Tertiary syphilis (C) usually occurs years after initial infection and presents with different symptoms. Fluorosis (D) is caused by excessive fluoride intake and does not match the symptoms described.