A patient with a sore throat and fever had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-positive cocci in chains and is catalase-negative. S. pyogenes commonly causes sore throat (pharyngitis) and fever, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and is not typically associated with pharyngitis. Enterococcus faecalis (C) is not typically found in chains and is rarely a cause of acute pharyngitis. Micrococcus luteus (D) is not typically associated with pharyngitis and is catalase-positive.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rickettsia. Rickettsia is a host-dependent bacterium because it requires living cells of a host organism to survive and replicate. This bacterium is an obligate intracellular pathogen, meaning it cannot grow outside of a host cell. A: Mycoplasma and B: Ureaplasma are not host-dependent as they can grow and reproduce in cell-free environments due to possessing their own unique cell wall structures. D: Micrococcus is a free-living bacterium that can survive and reproduce independently without relying on a host organism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reverse transcriptase and protease. Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into DNA, a crucial step in viral replication. Protease is responsible for cleaving viral polyproteins into functional proteins. Targeting both enzymes disrupts viral replication. Choice A is incorrect as integrase is not a main target in current therapy. Choice C is incorrect because protease is targeted along with reverse transcriptase, not integrase. Choice D is incorrect as targeting viral glycoproteins is not a main strategy in anti-HIV therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood serum. In suspected cases of brucellosis, blood serum is typically analyzed in a common microbiological laboratory. This is because the bacteria causing brucellosis, Brucella species, can be detected through serological tests in the blood serum. The presence of specific antibodies against Brucella in the serum confirms the diagnosis. Spinal fluid (choice B) would be analyzed in cases of suspected central nervous system infections, which are not typical for brucellosis. Vomit mass (choice C) is not a common sample for microbiological analysis in cases of brucellosis. Urine (choice D) is not the preferred sample for detecting Brucella antibodies; blood serum is the primary choice for serological testing.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contaminated. The air is never completely free of microorganisms, so it is considered contaminated. Microorganisms are ubiquitous in the environment. Permissible limits (B) imply a specific standard, which is not relevant to the general microbiological characteristic of air. Almost pure (C) and pure (D) are not accurate as air always contains some level of microorganisms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is the most common cause of vaginal yeast infections due to its ability to overgrow in warm, moist environments like the vagina. It is a type of fungus that naturally resides in the body, but can cause infection when its growth is not regulated. Histoplasma capsulatum (A) causes a lung infection, Aspergillus niger (C) causes fungal sinusitis, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D) is a type of yeast used in baking and brewing, not typically associated with vaginal infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Shigella is a nonmotile bacterium. 2. This lack of motility is a key characteristic used to differentiate it from other enteric bacteria. 3. Nonmotile nature of Shigella helps it to cause infections by invading the intestinal epithelial cells. 4. Therefore, choice C is correct as Shigella is indeed nonmotile. Summary: A: Incorrect - Shigella does not produce hydrogen sulfide. B: Incorrect - Shigella does not ferment lactose. D: Incorrect - Shigella is not mannitol positive.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium is responsible for causing leprosy because it has a unique ability to infect the skin, nerves, and mucous membranes. It is an acid-fast bacillus that multiplies very slowly, leading to a chronic infection. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, Escherichia coli (choice B) causes various gastrointestinal infections, and Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) causes skin infections and other diseases, but none of these bacteria are associated with leprosy.