ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a severe sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent due to its characteristic features. Streptococcus pyogenes is Gram-positive cocci in chains, which matches the description provided in the question. It is also known to be beta-hemolytic, causing complete lysis of red blood cells on blood agar. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing sore throat, often associated with pharyngitis. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae - This bacterium is Gram-positive but usually occurs in pairs (diplococci) and is alpha-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis - This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci but is not typically beta-hemolytic and is not commonly associated with sore throat infections. D: Staphylococcus aureus - This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci but usually occurs in clusters and
Question 2 of 9
The branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after drug administration is called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pharmacokinetics. Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement in the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. It focuses on how the body processes a drug over time. Pharmacodynamics (A) is the study of the effects drugs have on the body. Pharmacotherapeutics (C) involves using drugs to treat diseases. Pharmacy (D) is the practice of preparing and dispensing medications. Pharmacokinetics specifically deals with drug concentrations at different body sites after administration, making it the most appropriate choice for this question.
Question 3 of 9
Cholera is a serious gastrointestinal illness caused by bacteria of the genus:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vibrio. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae bacteria. These bacteria produce a toxin that causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. Escherichia (choice A) and Salmonella (choice B) are known for causing other types of gastrointestinal infections but not cholera. Acinetobacter (choice D) typically causes respiratory infections, not gastrointestinal illnesses like cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is Vibrio as it is specifically associated with cholera.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing the disease known as leprosy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mycobacterium leprae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria known to cause leprosy. 2. Clostridium perfringens is incorrect as it is associated with gas gangrene. 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae is incorrect as it is commonly linked to pneumonia and meningitis. 4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect as it causes gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. In summary, Mycobacterium leprae is the only bacteria among the choices specifically known to cause leprosy, making it the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
A fecal smear from a patient with chronic diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan parasite causes amoebic dysentery and is characterized by cysts with four nuclei in fecal smears. It is commonly associated with chronic diarrhea. Balantidium coli (B) presents with large ciliated trophozoites, not cysts. Giardia lamblia (C) has trophozoites with flagella and causes giardiasis, not cysts with four nuclei. Trichomonas hominis (D) typically has a pear-shaped trophozoite and is not associated with cysts with four nuclei.
Question 6 of 9
Cultural characteristics of bacteria are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cultural characteristics of bacteria refer to their growth patterns on different culture media, including liquid and solid agars. Bacteria exhibit unique growth patterns that can be observed and studied on these media. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to isolation techniques, not cultural characteristics. Choice B is incorrect as it describes metabolic activities, not cultural characteristics. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the essential aspect of bacterial growth on culture media.
Question 7 of 9
Family Retroviridae
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because retroviruses, including those in the Family Retroviridae, have a capsid consisting of two copies of single-stranded RNA (ssRNA). This is a defining characteristic of retroviruses, which use reverse transcriptase to convert their ssRNA into DNA. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Family Retroviridae viruses are not helical non-enveloped viruses (C), they are not helical enveloped viruses (A), and they do not have a complex type of symmetry (D).
Question 8 of 9
Which structure in bacteria allows them to exchange genetic material during conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pili in bacteria are responsible for conjugation, allowing the transfer of genetic material between cells. They form a bridge between donor and recipient cells, facilitating the exchange of DNA. Flagella are for movement, capsules for protection, and ribosomes for protein synthesis. Pili is the only structure directly involved in genetic material exchange.
Question 9 of 9
The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its small size and unique structure, allowing it to provide passive immunity to the fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgM is too large to cross the placental barrier, and IgD plays a role in B cell activation but is not involved in placental transfer.