ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a severe case of pneumonia had sputum stained using the Gram method. The smear revealed Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by being Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule, as described in the question. The presence of a capsule is a key characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae, distinguishing it from the other choices. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it typically forms clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a Gram-positive cocci. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present with a capsule in the same way Streptococcus pneumoniae does.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing the disease diphtheria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes diphtheria. It forms a grayish membrane in the throat, leading to difficulty breathing. Bacillus anthracis (Choice A) causes anthrax, Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice C) causes pneumonia, and Escherichia coli (Choice D) causes various infections but not diphtheria.
Question 3 of 9
Bacteriophages are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Firstly, bacteriophages are viruses, not white blood cells or bacteria. They specifically target and infect bacteria, not fungi. This is known as a bacteriophage cycle where the virus injects its genetic material into the bacterial cell to replicate and eventually lyse the cell. This process is specific to bacteria and distinguishes bacteriophages from other microorganisms. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it accurately describes the nature and function of bacteriophages.
Question 4 of 9
A wound swab from a patient with severe tissue infection revealed Gram-positive rods in chains producing gas. The bacteria were spore-forming. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is a Gram-positive rod that forms chains and produces gas due to its ability to ferment carbohydrates. It is also spore-forming, which helps it survive harsh conditions. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with severe tissue infections and gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a spore-forming Gram-positive rod but is not typically associated with gas production or severe tissue infections. Choice C: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming bacterium that causes tetanus, not severe tissue infections with gas production. Choice D: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not fit the description provided in the question.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with nosocomial infections?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly found in hospital environments. 2. It is an opportunistic pathogen causing various nosocomial infections. 3. Its ability to develop resistance to antibiotics makes it a significant threat. 4. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria, not common nosocomial infections. 5. Shigella sonnei causes foodborne illness, not typically nosocomial infections. 6. "None of the above" is incorrect as Pseudomonas is indeed commonly associated with nosocomial infections.
Question 6 of 9
Native microscopic slides are good for observation of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Motility. Native microscopic slides are ideal for observing motility because they allow for the observation of living microorganisms in their natural state. By observing the movement of microorganisms on a native slide, one can assess their motility characteristics accurately. Choice B (Division) is incorrect because native slides may not provide the ideal conditions for observing cell division, as it may be difficult to capture the exact moment of division in a live organism. Choice C (Presence of capsules) is also incorrect because observing capsules usually requires specific staining techniques that may not be suitable for native slides. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as native slides are indeed beneficial for observing motility.
Question 7 of 9
Examples for chemical vaccines are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Shiga anatoxin. This is because the Salk and Sabin vaccines are actually for polio, not chemical vaccines. HPV vaccine is a biological vaccine, not a chemical one. Shiga anatoxin is a chemical vaccine used against Shigella bacteria, making it the only correct choice for chemical vaccines in this question.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a phase I reaction in biotransformation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxidation. Phase I reactions in biotransformation involve introducing or unmasking functional groups through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Oxidation reactions typically involve the addition of an oxygen atom or removal of hydrogen atoms, making them common phase I reactions. In this process, enzymes like cytochrome P450 play a crucial role in catalyzing the oxidation reactions. Conjugation (B), acetylation (C), and glucuronidation (D) are all examples of phase II reactions, which involve the conjugation of the drug or metabolite with endogenous compounds to increase water solubility for excretion. These reactions typically follow phase I reactions and are not classified as phase I reactions in biotransformation.
Question 9 of 9
UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.