ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a recent diagnosis of HIV infection expresses an interest in exploring alternative and complementary therapies. How should the nurse best respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it acknowledges that many HIV patients use alternative therapies and emphasizes the importance of weighing the benefits and risks. This response shows respect for the patient's autonomy and preferences while also recognizing the need for informed decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses complementary therapies outright without considering individual patient needs or preferences. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests avoiding alternative therapies entirely, which may not align with the patient's wishes or experiences. Choice D is incorrect as it presents a false dichotomy between alternative and medical approaches, disregarding the possibility of integrating both types of treatments.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with active herpes. The teaching plan for this patient should include which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because babies can become infected with the herpes virus if delivered vaginally. During childbirth, the virus can be passed to the infant, leading to serious health complications. This information is crucial for the patient to understand in order to make informed decisions about delivery options. Choice B is incorrect because excision of herpes lesions is not the recommended treatment during pregnancy. Treatment typically involves antiviral medications to manage symptoms and reduce the risk of transmission to the baby. Choice C is incorrect because herpes outbreaks can indeed be painful during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and a weakened immune system. Pain management strategies should be discussed as part of the teaching plan. Choice D is incorrect because pregnancy can pose a risk to the infant if the mother has active herpes. It is important to manage the condition appropriately to prevent transmission to the baby.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with hearing loss related to damage of the end organ for hearing or cranial nerve VIII. What term is used to describe this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sensorineural hearing loss. This type of hearing loss is caused by damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Exostoses (A) are bony growths in the ear canal, not related to cranial nerve VIII. Otalgia (B) refers to ear pain, not hearing loss. Presbycusis (D) is age-related hearing loss, not specifically related to damage of the end organ for hearing or cranial nerve VIII. Therefore, C is the most appropriate term to describe the given condition.
Question 4 of 9
A pediatric nurse is emotionally distraught by the death of a 9-year-old girl who received care on the unit over the course of many admissions spanning several years. What action is the most appropriate response to the nurses own grief?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking time off from work to mourn allows the nurse to process their emotions and prevent burnout. This self-care step promotes mental well-being and helps prevent the nurse from being overwhelmed by their grief. Choice B is incorrect as it may prolong the grieving process and create a constant reminder of the loss. Choice C could potentially burden the patient's family with the nurse's grief, making it an inappropriate action. Choice D, attending the memorial service, may be emotionally challenging and may not provide the nurse with the necessary space to cope with their grief effectively.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is preparing to check the gastric aspirate for pH. Which equipment will the nurse obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 10-mL Luer-Lok syringe. The nurse should use this syringe to obtain a gastric aspirate for pH testing because it allows for accurate measurement of the aspirate volume. Asepto syringe (B) is not suitable for this purpose as it is not designed for accurate measurement. Sterile gloves (C) and double gloves (D) are not equipment used specifically for obtaining gastric aspirate for pH testing. Sterile gloves are used for infection control, and double gloves are used for additional protection during procedures.
Question 7 of 9
A woman is considering breast reduction mammoplasty. When weighing the potential risks and benefits of this surgical procedure, the nurse should confirm that the patient is aware of what potential consequence?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased nipple sensation. During breast reduction mammoplasty, nerves responsible for nipple sensation may be disrupted, leading to decreased sensation in the nipple area. This is an important consequence to consider as it can impact the patient's satisfaction and quality of life post-surgery. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Chronic breast pain is a potential risk of surgery but not a consequence directly related to nipple sensation. B: Unclear mammography results may occur due to breast tissue changes from surgery, but it is not a direct consequence of decreased nipple sensation. C: Increased risk of breast cancer is not a common consequence of breast reduction mammoplasty and is not directly related to nipple sensation.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with multiple sclerosis who is demonstrating involuntary, rhythmic eye movements. What term will the nurse use when documenting these eye movements?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct term for the involuntary, rhythmic eye movements seen in the patient with multiple sclerosis is nystagmus. Nystagmus is a condition characterized by repetitive, uncontrolled eye movements that can be horizontal, vertical, or rotary. In multiple sclerosis, nystagmus can occur due to damage to the nerves that control eye movement. Vertigo (choice A) is a sensation of spinning or dizziness, not related to eye movements. Tinnitus (choice B) is a perception of noise or ringing in the ears. Astigmatism (choice D) is a refractive error of the eye, not related to involuntary eye movements.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who is scheduled to have an ossiculoplasty. What postoperative assessment will best determine whether the procedure has been successful?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Audiometry. Postoperative audiometry is the most appropriate assessment to determine the success of ossiculoplasty, as it evaluates the patient's hearing function and any improvements made by the surgery. Otoscopy (A) is a visual examination of the ear canal and may not provide comprehensive information on hearing. Balance testing (C) assesses equilibrium and is not directly related to the success of ossiculoplasty. Culture and sensitivity testing (D) of ear discharge is used to identify infections and would not directly indicate the success of the surgery.