A patient with a productive cough and fever had a Gram-positive cocci isolated from a sputum sample. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. 1. Gram-positive cocci suggest a staphylococcal species. 2. Catalase-positive indicates it belongs to the Staphylococcus genus. 3. Coagulase-negative rules out Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause of infections in immunocompromised patients. Summary: - B: Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive. - C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive diplococci. - D: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Widal test is used to diagnose typhoid fever caused by the bacteria Salmonella typhi. The test detects antibodies produced in response to the bacteria. Positive results indicate a current or past infection with typhoid fever. Choice A (Syphilis) is incorrect as it is diagnosed using different tests like RPR or TPPA. Choice C (AIDS) is diagnosed with HIV tests like ELISA or Western blot. Choice D (Lyme disease) is diagnosed using tests like ELISA or Western blot specific for Borrelia burgdorferi.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bacteriocins are substances with protein nature, not polysaccharides. Bacteriocins are antimicrobial peptides that kill bacterial cells, mainly those of closely related species or other strains of the same species. Polysaccharides are not typically involved in bacteriocin activity. Therefore, option C is false. Options A, B, and D are true statements supported by the nature and function of bacteriocins.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sanitary control is crucial for monitoring the quality of a wide range of essential services to ensure public health and safety. Food safety, drinking water quality, cleanliness in restaurants, hygiene in healthcare settings, and transportation systems all fall under the purview of sanitary control. Therefore, option A is the most comprehensive and accurate choice. Option B is incorrect because it does not include monitoring restaurants, health care services, and transport, which are important aspects of sanitary control. Option C is incorrect as it excludes transportation, an essential area that requires sanitary monitoring. Option D is incorrect as it does not cover health care services, which are critical for ensuring public health and safety.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. 1. Gram-positive cocci suggest a staphylococcal species. 2. Catalase-positive indicates it belongs to the Staphylococcus genus. 3. Coagulase-negative rules out Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause of infections in immunocompromised patients. Summary: - B: Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive. - C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive diplococci. - D: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose, leading to red colonies on Endo agar. This bacterium is commonly found in the human gut and is known for its ability to ferment lactose. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods but do not ferment lactose, so they would not produce red colonies on Endo agar. Proteus is a Gram-negative rod that is not known for its lactose-fermenting ability and would not produce red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided, E. coli is the most likely microorganism responsible for the red colonies on Endo agar.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prostatitis. Prostatitis is the most common bacterial infection affecting the male reproductive system. It is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland due to bacterial infection. Symptoms include pain in the pelvic area, difficulty urinating, and fever. Cystitis (A) is a bladder infection, not specific to the male reproductive system. Mastitis (C) is inflammation of the breast tissue, which is not related to the male reproductive system. Nephritis (D) is inflammation of the kidneys, which is also not specific to the male reproductive system.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This bacterium is a normal skin flora commonly found on human skin. It is part of the skin microbiota and helps protect against pathogenic organisms. Streptococcus pyogenes (A), Pseudomonas aeruginosa (C), and Acinetobacter baumannii (D) are not normal skin flora. Streptococcus pyogenes is a pathogenic bacterium causing various infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen commonly found in water and soil, and Acinetobacter baumannii is associated with healthcare-associated infections.