ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a new diagnosis of lung cancer decides to have radiation therapy. Which of the ff. expectations of this treatment is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased comfort. Radiation therapy for lung cancer aims to alleviate symptoms, reduce pain, and improve quality of life. It is not typically used as a curative treatment like surgery or chemotherapy (A). It does not prevent the need for oxygen (B), as lung cancer can still affect lung function. While radiation therapy may help control the growth of cancer cells, it is not always effective in preventing cancer spread (D). Therefore, the most appropriate expectation of radiation therapy for lung cancer is increased comfort for the patient.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.
Question 3 of 9
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self- examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges delineated. This finding strongly suggests cancer as non-mobile masses with irregular edges are characteristic of malignant tumors. Cancerous lumps tend to be fixed in place due to involvement of surrounding tissues. Irregular edges indicate potential invasive growth. Choices A and B describe characteristics more commonly associated with benign masses. Eversion of the nipple is concerning for cancer but not specific enough to strongly suggest malignancy. Choice D indicates absence of lymph node involvement, which is not directly related to the characteristics of the breast lump.
Question 4 of 9
A patient recovering from a leg fracture after a fall reports having dull pain in the affected leg and rates it as a 7 on a 0 to 10 scale. The patient is not able to walk around in the room with crutches because of leg discomfort. Which nursing intervention is priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer pain medication. The priority in this situation is to address the patient's pain and provide relief. Administering pain medication will help alleviate the discomfort and enable the patient to mobilize with crutches or a walker. Walking without pain is crucial for the patient's recovery. Explanation for other choices: A: Assisting the patient to walk with crutches may worsen the pain and should not be attempted until the pain is managed. B: Obtaining a walker is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the patient's pain. C: Consulting physical therapy may be beneficial in the long term, but immediate pain relief is the priority in this situation.
Question 5 of 9
. During the first 24 hours after a client is diagnosed with Addisonian crisis, which of the following should the nurse perform frequently?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, assess vital signs, as it is crucial to monitor the client's hemodynamic stability and response to treatment during the critical initial 24 hours of Addisonian crisis. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate provide valuable information about the client's condition and response to therapy. Weighing the client (choice A) and testing urine for ketones (choice C) may be important but not as immediately critical as monitoring vital signs. Administering oral hydrocortisone (choice B) is essential for treatment but does not require frequent administration within the first 24 hours.
Question 6 of 9
When the nurse is reviewing a patient’s daily laboratory test results, which of the ff. electrolyte imbalances should the nurse recognize as predisposing the patient to digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Digoxin toxicity can be potentiated by hypokalemia due to the risk of enhanced cardiac toxicity. 2. Hypokalemia can lead to increased sensitivity of cardiac cells to digoxin. 3. Low potassium levels can disrupt the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, enhancing digoxin's effects. 4. The nurse should recognize hypokalemia as a predisposing factor for digoxin toxicity. Summary: A: Hypokalemia is the correct answer as it enhances digoxin toxicity by affecting cardiac function. B: Hyponatremia does not directly predispose to digoxin toxicity. C: Hyperkalemia is not a predisposing factor and can actually counteract digoxin's effects. D: Hypernatremia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus how to treat adverse reactions to insulin. To reverse a hypoglycemic reaction, the client ideally should ingest an oral carbohydrate. However, this treatment isn’t always a possible or safe. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to keep which alternate treatment on hand?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucagon. In a hypoglycemic reaction, glucagon can be administered to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. This is crucial in emergencies when oral carbohydrates are not feasible. Epinephrine (A) is used for severe allergic reactions, not hypoglycemia. 50% dextrose (B) is an oral carbohydrate used for hypoglycemia but is not always practical. Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, not for hypoglycemic emergencies.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Polyps. Polyps in the colon are precancerous growths that can develop into colorectal cancer over time. Identifying polyps during a medical history interview can raise suspicion for colorectal cancer due to their potential to progress into malignancy. Duodenal ulcer (A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer. Weight gain (B) is a non-specific symptom and does not specifically indicate colorectal cancer. Hemorrhoids (C) are common and usually benign, not directly linked to colorectal cancer.
Question 9 of 9
Why should the nurse monitor angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors cautiously in clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause vasodilation, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults, these medications may not be cleared from the body as efficiently, increasing the risk of hypotension. Monitoring is crucial to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: A sudden raise in BP is unlikely with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. C: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors do not affect body temperature. D: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors typically do not cause a sudden rise in pulse rate. In summary, monitoring for a potential drop in blood pressure is essential in vulnerable populations when using angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.