ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare an advance directive. This allows the patient to document their healthcare preferences in advance, ensuring their wishes are known and honored as the disease progresses. It provides clear instructions for healthcare providers and family members, reducing potential conflicts and ensuring the patient's autonomy is respected. Choice B is incorrect as designating an MRP focuses on medical decision-making but may not capture the full range of the patient's care preferences. Choice C involves collaboration with an organization, which may not fully represent the patient's individual wishes. Choice D is incorrect as witnesses are not always necessary for providing instructions, and the presence of witnesses does not guarantee that the patient's wishes will be followed accurately.
Question 2 of 9
A 67-year-old woman experienced the death of her husband from a sudden myocardial infarction 5 weeks ago. The nurse recognizes that the woman will be going through the process of mourning for an extended period of time. What processes of mourning will allow the woman to accommodate the loss in a healthy way? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reinvesting in new relationships at the appropriate time. This process of mourning involves the woman gradually shifting her focus from the past relationship with her husband to forming new relationships or reinvesting in existing ones. This is crucial for her to adapt to life without her husband and move forward in a healthy manner. A: Reiterating her anger at her husband's care team is not a healthy process as it can lead to prolonged resentment and hinder the mourning process. C: Reminiscing about the relationship she had with her husband is a natural part of mourning but solely focusing on reminiscing may not allow her to fully adapt to life without her husband. D: Relinquishing old attachments to her husband at the appropriate time is important, but it is only one aspect of the mourning process. It is not the sole process necessary for healthy mourning. E: Renewing her lifelong commitment to her husband is not a healthy process as it prevents her from accepting the loss and
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrheafor the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss and dehydration, causing a decrease in skin turgor. Assessing skin turgor by gently pinching the skin on the patient's forearm is important to determine hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more indicative of possible bowel obstruction or fluid accumulation, not specifically related to diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely as diarrhea typically causes fatigue and weakness due to electrolyte imbalance. D: Elevated blood pressure is not a typical finding with diarrhea unless there are other underlying medical conditions.
Question 4 of 9
A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: MRI. MRI is the most appropriate test for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor as it provides detailed images of soft tissues, including the spinal cord and surrounding structures. It can accurately identify the location, size, and extent of the tumor. Anterior-posterior x-ray (A) is not as detailed and may not clearly show soft tissue abnormalities. Ultrasound (B) is not typically used for imaging the spinal cord and may not provide sufficient information. Lumbar puncture (C) is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not helpful for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor.
Question 5 of 9
A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient. Incorrect choices: A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans. B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis. D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil
Question 7 of 9
The nurses plan of care for a patient with stage 3 HIV addresses the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Candidiasis. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing thorough oral care before and after meals. This addresses the risk for impaired skin integrity related to Candidiasis in patients with stage 3 HIV by preventing oral Candidiasis, a common fungal infection. Poor oral hygiene can lead to Candidiasis, which can spread to the skin. Thorough oral care reduces the risk of oral Candidiasis, thereby preventing skin integrity issues. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (B) is not indicated for preventing Candidiasis. Promoting nutrition and fluid intake (C) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of impaired skin integrity. Applying skin emollients (D) may help with skin dryness but does not directly address the underlying cause of Candidiasis.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is discharging a patient home after surgery for trigeminal neuralgia. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient in order to reduce the risk of injury?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Trigeminal neuralgia involves severe facial pain, often triggered by touch or movement. Step 2: Rubbing the eye on the affected side can trigger pain due to the trigeminal nerve involvement. Step 3: Therefore, advising the patient to avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side is crucial to prevent pain exacerbation and potential injury. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the risk of injury related to trigeminal neuralgia.
Question 9 of 9
A male patient presents at the free clinic with complaints of impotency. Upon physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hypogonadism. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prolactinoma. Hypogonadism is often associated with decreased testosterone levels, which can be caused by excessive prolactin secretion from a prolactinoma. Prolactin inhibits the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), leading to decreased production of testosterone. Angioma, glioma, and ACTH-producing adenoma are not typically associated with hypogonadism. Angiomas are benign tumors of blood vessels, gliomas are tumors of the brain or spinal cord, and ACTH-producing adenomas are associated with Cushing's disease, not hypogonadism.