ATI RN
Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Review Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a long history of hypertension and diabetes now develops confusion. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer’s disease or multiple infarcts. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse expect to prepare the patient for first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography (CT) scan. This diagnostic procedure is the most appropriate initial step in differentiating between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarcts in this case. A CT scan can help identify any structural changes in the brain, such as infarcts or areas of damage, which are more likely to be seen in multiple infarcts rather than Alzheimer's disease. It can also rule out other potential causes of the patient's confusion. Option A (EEG) is not the best choice as it primarily detects electrical activity in the brain and may not provide the structural information needed for this case. Option B (PET scan) is more useful for detecting metabolic changes in the brain and may not be the most appropriate initial test. Option D (SPECT scan) is similar to a PET scan and may not provide the structural details needed for this differential diagnosis. In summary, a CT scan is the most suitable initial diagnostic procedure in this scenario as it can
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is discouraged because his plan to reduce negative symptoms of schizophrenia (apathy, avolition, inattentiveness, poor socialization, poor eye contact and flat affect, etc.) in a client is not working. The mentor’s remark that helps place the problem in perspective is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Negative symptoms have been associated with prefrontal cortical pathology." This is the most appropriate response because it provides a scientific explanation for the nurse's difficulty in reducing the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Negative symptoms in schizophrenia, such as apathy and inattentiveness, are believed to be related to dysfunction in the prefrontal cortex of the brain. Understanding this underlying pathology helps the nurse approach the situation with a more informed perspective. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the specific issue of negative symptoms in schizophrenia and does not provide any helpful insight for the nurse. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a simplistic view of clients being stubborn, which does not consider the complex neurobiological factors at play in schizophrenia. Choice D is incorrect because while it acknowledges the role of psychosocial and environmental factors, it does not address the specific neuropathology associated with negative symptoms in schizophrenia.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse will prepare for what immediate concern?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose can lead to sodium channel blockade, causing prolonged QT intervals and various cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. This is a critical concern as it can lead to life-threatening situations like cardiac arrest. Immediate monitoring and intervention are necessary. Hypertension (A) may occur due to anticholinergic effects, but it is not the most immediate concern. Renal failure (B) and gastrointestinal bleeding (D) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressant overdose and are not immediate concerns in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the classes of antidysrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class III drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified as a class III antidysrhythmic drug which acts by prolonging the action potential duration. This leads to prolongation of the refractory period of the heart, helping to prevent reentry of arrhythmias. Choice A is incorrect as blocking slow calcium channels is the mechanism of action for class IV drugs. Choice C is incorrect as blocking sodium channels is the mechanism for class I drugs. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing spontaneous depolarization is the mechanism for class II drugs.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is taking guaifenesin (Humibid) as part of treatment for a sinus infection. Which instruction will the nurse include during patient teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Force fluids to help loosen and liquefy secretions. Guaifenesin is an expectorant that works by thinning and loosening mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up secretions. By instructing the patient to increase fluid intake, it helps enhance the medication's effect by keeping the secretions moist and easier to expel. Reporting clear-colored sputum (choice B) is not necessary as it is a normal sign of the medication working. Avoiding driving or operating heavy machinery (choice C) is not relevant as guaifenesin does not have sedating effects. Reporting symptoms lasting longer than 2 days (choice D) is important, but not directly related to the medication's mechanism of action.