ATI RN
Nursing Clinical Skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a history of type 1 diabetes and an eating disorder is found unconscious. In the emergency department, the following lab values are obtained: Glucose: 648 mg/dL pH: 88 P CO : 20 mm Hg a 2 P O : 95 mm Hg a 2 HCO ¯: undetectable Anion gap: >31 Na+: 127 mEq/L K+: 5 mEq/L Creatinine: 8 mg/dL After the patient’s airway and ventilation have been established, the next priority for this patient is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: administration of a 1-L normal saline fluid bolus. In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to the extremely high glucose levels, low bicarbonate, and anion gap metabolic acidosis. The priority is to correct the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through fluid resuscitation with normal saline to improve perfusion and reverse the metabolic derangements. Options B, C, and D do not address the immediate need for volume resuscitation and correction of dehydration. Administering insulin or potassium without first addressing the fluid deficit could lead to further complications. Sodium bicarbonate is not recommended in DKA as it can worsen acidosis and has not been shown to improve outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is on intake and output (I&O), as well as daily weights. The nurse notes that output is considerably less than intake over the last shift, and daily weight is 1 kg more than yesterday. The nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: assess the patient's lungs. The discrepancy between intake, output, and weight gain indicates a potential fluid imbalance. By assessing the patient's lungs, the nurse can identify signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or difficulty breathing, which could explain the weight gain and imbalance. This step is crucial in determining the underlying cause and guiding further interventions. Drawing a trough level (A) or inserting an indwelling catheter (D) are not necessary at this point and may not address the immediate issue. Placing the patient on fluid restriction (B) should only be considered after a thorough assessment to determine the cause of the imbalance.
Question 3 of 9
Acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by obstruction of the flow of urine, leading to back pressure and damage to the kidneys. Choices B and C relate to prerenal causes, affecting renal perfusion and volume status. Choice D refers to intrinsic renal causes, directly affecting kidney tissue function, not postrenal obstruction. Therefore, A is correct due to the nature of postrenal etiology.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following would be seen in a patient with myxedema coma?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased reflexes. In myxedema coma, a severe form of hypothyroidism, patients often present with decreased mental status, hypothermia, and bradycardia. Decreased reflexes are a common neurological manifestation due to the slowing of metabolic processes and the central nervous system depression associated with this condition. Hyperthermia (B) is not typically seen in myxedema coma, as patients usually have low body temperature. Hyperventilation (C) is also unlikely, as respiratory depression is more common. Tachycardia (D) is incorrect because bradycardia is more characteristic of myxedema coma.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a head trauma following a fall. The patient’s heart rate is 112 beats/min and blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. The patient has poor skin turgor and dry mucous membranes. The patient is confused and restless. The following laboratory values are reported: serum sodium is 115 mEq/L; blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 50 mg/dL; and creatinine 8 mg/dL. The findings are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebral salt wasting. This is indicated by the low serum sodium level (115 mEq/L), which can occur in patients with head trauma and lead to excessive sodium loss through the kidneys. This results in hypovolemia, leading to low blood pressure and tachycardia. The elevated BUN (50 mg/dL) and creatinine (8 mg/dL) levels suggest dehydration and renal impairment due to volume depletion. The patient's poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, confusion, and restlessness further support the diagnosis of cerebral salt wasting. Summary: B: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and thirst due to insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This patient's symptoms are not consistent with diabetes insipidus. C: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of ADH, leading to water retention and
Question 6 of 9
The patient’s potassium level is 0 mEq/L. Besides dialysis, which of the following actually reduces plasma potassium levels and total body potassium content safely in a patient with renal dysfunction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, leading to potassium excretion. A is the safest option without the risk of causing hypernatremia or intestinal necrosis like B. Regular insulin (C) may cause hypoglycemia and is not as effective as A in reducing potassium levels. Calcium gluconate (D) does not directly reduce potassium levels and is used for treating hyperkalemia-related cardiac toxicity.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This syndrome occurs when there is a rapid shift in electrolytes, especially in the brain, due to the removal of waste products during hemodialysis. The symptoms of headache, nausea, and confusion align with this syndrome as the brain struggles to adjust to the changes. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) is unlikely as it typically presents with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause symptoms like muscle weakness or irregular heartbeat, not headache and confusion. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature, shivering, and confusion, but in this case, the symptoms are more indicative of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
Question 8 of 9
The patient is admitted with acute kidney injury from a postrenal cause. Acceptable treatments for that diagnosis include: (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bladder catheterization helps relieve urinary obstruction, a common postrenal cause of acute kidney injury. It allows urine to drain freely from the bladder. - B: Increasing fluid volume intake may worsen the condition by increasing the pressure on the obstructed kidneys. - C: Ureteral stenting is used for intrarenal causes, not postrenal causes. - D: Placement of nephrostomy tubes bypasses the obstruction but is usually reserved for more severe cases.
Question 9 of 9
The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.