A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed famotidine (Pepcid) for gastric acid suppression. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about famotidine therapy?

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed famotidine (Pepcid) for gastric acid suppression. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about famotidine therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Famotidine belongs to a class of medications known as H2 blockers which work to reduce the production of stomach acid. Antacids, on the other hand, work by neutralizing stomach acid. Taking antacids in conjunction with famotidine can decrease the effectiveness of famotidine as they can interfere with its absorption. Therefore, it is important for the patient to avoid taking antacids while on famotidine therapy to ensure optimal treatment outcomes for gastric acid suppression.

Question 2 of 9

While taking nursing history on Annie, what will be the response of the patient that indicates her present condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The response indicating Annie's present condition would be option A. This is because the symptoms mentioned in option A, such as experiencing vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus when sitting, point towards a vestibular disorder. These are symptoms commonly associated with conditions like Meniere's disease or vestibular neuritis, which can cause balance issues and feelings of dizziness. These symptoms are more indicative of Annie's current health status compared to the other options which focus on past or unrelated issues, such as ear pain during travel or impaired hearing since birth. The information provided in option A gives a more direct insight into Annie's present condition, making it the most appropriate response.

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with a rash characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles arranged in a linear distribution. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Scabies is a contagious skin infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The classic presentation of scabies includes a rash characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles that are arranged in a linear or burrow-like distribution. These linear tracks are often seen in areas such as the interdigital spaces, wrists, elbows, axillae, belt line, and genitalia. It is commonly associated with intense itching, especially at night. Unlike psoriasis, which presents with silvery scales and well-defined borders, or contact dermatitis, which results from exposure to a specific allergen or irritant, scabies is caused by a parasitic mite infestation. Atopic dermatitis, on the other hand, is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by pruritic eczematous lesions, but it typically does not manifest with a linear distribution of lesions like scabies.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with abdominal pain, fever, and peripheral blood smear showing fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes). Laboratory tests reveal elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin, and increased indirect bilirubin. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare blood disorder characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, neurological abnormalities, and renal dysfunction. The peripheral blood smear in TTP typically shows fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes) due to mechanical destruction within small blood vessels. Laboratory findings in TTP commonly include elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin (as it is consumed in the clearance of free hemoglobin), and increased indirect bilirubin due to increased red blood cell breakdown. This combination of clinical presentation and laboratory abnormalities is classic for TTP. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) may present similarly but is more commonly associated with renal dysfunction and is often triggered by infection with Shiga toxin-producing E. coli.

Question 5 of 9

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage dementia experiences agitation and restlessness. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with end-stage dementia experiencing agitation and restlessness is to create a calm and soothing environment to promote relaxation. Patients with dementia often respond positively to a familiar and tranquil setting, which can help reduce their symptoms of agitation and restlessness. This approach is preferred over administering antipsychotic medications or recommending physical exercise, as these may not be feasible or beneficial for patients in the advanced stages of dementia. Referring the patient to a psychiatrist may not address the immediate need for symptom management and can be considered if other interventions are ineffective. Creating a calm environment, such as dim lighting, soft music, and familiar objects, can help provide comfort and reduce distress for the patient.

Question 6 of 9

Select nurses action in keeping with principle of confidentiality

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining patient confidentiality is a foundational principle in healthcare ethics. Nurses are obligated to keep all information about patients confidential, which means not disclosing any patient-related information to unauthorized individuals. This includes refraining from discussing patient cases with others who are not directly involved in the care of the patient. Sharing patient information without consent can be a breach of trust and privacy, which can have legal and ethical implications. Therefore, in order to uphold the principle of confidentiality, nurses must keep all matters about the patient as a secret.

Question 7 of 9

Nurse Sandy selected a framework which focuses " that humans are in constant relationship with stressors in the environment and that nursing is keeping the patient's system adjust to wellness which is BEST reflected in _______.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Neuman's adaptation model, also known as the Neuman Systems Model, is a nursing theory that focuses on how individuals respond to stressors in their environment. The model views individuals as being in a constant state of dynamic equilibrium, where they are interacting with stressors that can disrupt their normal functioning. Nursing care, according to this model, is aimed at helping individuals maintain or restore their optimal level of wellness by assisting them in adapting to these stressors. Therefore, Nurse Sandy's selection of a framework that emphasizes the constant relationship between humans and stressors in the environment aligns best with Neuman's adaptation model.

Question 8 of 9

Patient Josephine asks why her labor is much shorter compared to previous deliveries. Which of the following is the BEST RESPONSE?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The statement "Multigravida patient has shorter labor" is the best response to Patient Josephine's question about her shorter labor compared to previous deliveries. In obstetrics, it is commonly observed that labor tends to be shorter in patients who have had previous pregnancies (multigravida patients) due to factors such as prior cervical changes and previous stretching of the birth canal. This phenomenon is known as "multigravida cervical efficiency," and it can lead to faster and more efficient labors in subsequent pregnancies for women who have had previous deliveries.

Question 9 of 9

While preparing the operating room (OR) for a surgical procedure, the nurse notices a spill of bodily fluids on the floor. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority action when noticing a spill of bodily fluids on the floor while preparing the operating room for a surgical procedure is to clean up the spill using appropriate infection control measures. This is essential to prevent the spread of infections and ensure a safe surgical environment for both patients and healthcare providers. Cleaning up the spill promptly and properly reduces the risk of contamination and subsequent infections. Once the spill is cleaned up, the nurse can then proceed with documenting the spill, placing warning signs to alert others, and continuing with the preparation of the OR as planned. But the initial priority is to eliminate the immediate threat posed by the spill through proper cleaning and infection control measures.

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