A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for chest pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve oxygen supply to the heart. Obtaining a detailed medical history, conducting an ECG, or administering morphine sulfate are important steps in the assessment and treatment process but are secondary to the immediate need to address chest pain and potential cardiac ischemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increases cough production.' Guaifenesin is an expectorant that works by increasing cough production to help clear secretions from the airways. Option A is incorrect because guaifenesin does not decrease mucus production but rather helps to make the mucus easier to cough up. Option B is incorrect as guaifenesin does not reduce nasal congestion. Option D is incorrect because guaifenesin does not have any effect on reducing fever.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.