ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma presents with fever, chills, and generalized malaise. Laboratory tests reveal pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms and laboratory findings consistent with a paraneoplastic syndrome related to Hodgkin lymphoma. In this case, the fever, chills, generalized malaise, pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement are all indicative of a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkin lymphoma. Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that are triggered by an abnormal immune response to a neoplasm, such as Hodgkin lymphoma, leading to various systemic manifestations.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a berry-shaped aneurysm at the junction of the anterior communicating artery and anterior cerebral artery. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status, along with the presence of a berry-shaped aneurysm on imaging, point towards a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage is the rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm, which commonly occurs at the junction of the anterior communicating artery and anterior cerebral artery. The sudden headache is often described as the "worst headache of my life" and is typically associated with nausea and vomiting. Altered mental status may be present due to the effects of increased intracranial pressure and possible associated brain injury. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent complications such as vasospasm, rebleeding, and ischemic deficits.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and vomiting. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pituitary adenoma is a type of benign tumor that arises from the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. When a pituitary adenoma grows large enough, it can compress surrounding structures, including the optic chiasm – the point at which the optic nerves cross over in the brain. Compression of the optic chiasm can lead to symptoms such as vision problems (e.g., visual disturbances), headaches, and nausea/vomiting, which are consistent with the presentation described in the question. Meningiomas, glioblastoma multiforme, and medulloblastomas are less likely to compress the optic chiasm and present with different characteristic symptoms based on their locations and growth patterns.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described are classic for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Patients typically present with weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), and eventually develop difficulty swallowing and breathing due to involvement of the muscles responsible for these functions. Parkinson's disease (Choice A) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia but does not typically present with muscle atrophy or fasciculations as described in the case. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (Choice B) is an acute inflammatory condition affecting peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis, which is usually reversible. Myasthenia gravis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disorder that affects neu
Question 5 of 5
A patient expresses confusion about their medication regimen. What is the nurse's best approach to address this issue?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address the patient's confusion about their medication regimen is to use a teach-back method to assess understanding and clarify any misconceptions. This method involves the nurse asking the patient to explain in their own words how they will take their medications, what each medication is for, and any potential side effects they should watch for. By using the teach-back method, the nurse can confirm the patient's comprehension and correct any misunderstandings in a supportive and non-judgmental manner. This approach promotes patient education, empowerment, and adherence to the medication regimen. Providing written instructions alone (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the patient has difficulty reading or understanding written information. Explaining the medication regimen using complex medical terminology (Choice B) can further confuse the patient, making it harder for them to grasp the information. Dismissing the patient's concerns and reassuring them that the medication is safe (Choice D) does not address the root of the issue and