ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a history of heart failure presents with dependent edema in the lower extremities. Which nursing action is most appropriate for managing the patient's edema?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action for managing a patient with dependent edema in the lower extremities is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics help the body remove excess fluid, reducing swelling and edema in the extremities. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's orders for administering diuretics to ensure the patient's fluid balance is managed effectively. While elevating the legs above heart level and applying compression stockings may provide temporary relief, addressing the underlying cause of fluid retention with diuretics is essential for long-term management of the edema in a patient with heart failure. Encouraging increased fluid intake would not be appropriate in this case, as the focus should be on reducing fluid overload rather than increasing fluid intake.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed famotidine (Pepcid) for gastric acid suppression. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about famotidine therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Famotidine belongs to a class of medications known as H2 blockers which work to reduce the production of stomach acid. Antacids, on the other hand, work by neutralizing stomach acid. Taking antacids in conjunction with famotidine can decrease the effectiveness of famotidine as they can interfere with its absorption. Therefore, it is important for the patient to avoid taking antacids while on famotidine therapy to ensure optimal treatment outcomes for gastric acid suppression.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are often prescribed for the management of hypertension because they can help relax blood vessels and slow the heart rate, thus reducing blood pressure. One of the major adverse effects associated with calcium channel blockers is bradycardia (slow heart rate) or even more rarely, tachycardia (fast heart rate). Therefore, in a patient prescribed a calcium channel blocker for hypertension, the nurse should closely monitor for any signs and symptoms of tachycardia as it can be a serious adverse effect that needs prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant for the management of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic effects, which can lead to various cardiovascular side effects, including orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and potential hypertension. While hypotension is a possible adverse effect, hypertension is more commonly associated with TCAs. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the patient for signs of hypertension, such as elevated blood pressure readings, to prevent any adverse outcomes and ensure the patient's safety while on this medication.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for managing hypertension, the nurse should monitor closely for signs of hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors can affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion and impaired potassium excretion by the kidneys. As a result, potassium levels in the blood may increase, leading to hyperkalemia.