A patient with a history of heart failure presents with dependent edema in the lower extremities. Which nursing action is most appropriate for managing the patient's edema?

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with a history of heart failure presents with dependent edema in the lower extremities. Which nursing action is most appropriate for managing the patient's edema?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action for managing a patient with dependent edema in the lower extremities is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics help the body remove excess fluid, reducing swelling and edema in the extremities. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's orders for administering diuretics to ensure the patient's fluid balance is managed effectively. While elevating the legs above heart level and applying compression stockings may provide temporary relief, addressing the underlying cause of fluid retention with diuretics is essential for long-term management of the edema in a patient with heart failure. Encouraging increased fluid intake would not be appropriate in this case, as the focus should be on reducing fluid overload rather than increasing fluid intake.

Question 2 of 9

Upon history-taking, the nurse notes that the cough of a patient with lung cancer usually STARTS off to be ___________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The cough of a patient with lung cancer typically starts off as dry and persistent. This is because lung cancer can irritate the airways, leading to a persistent dry cough as an early symptom. As the cancer progresses, the cough may become more productive with blood-tinged or dark yellow sputum. However, in the early stages, the cough is often dry and persistent, which can be a warning sign for healthcare providers to further investigate potential underlying issues such as lung cancer.

Question 3 of 9

A woman in active labor demonstrates persistent posterior fetal position, contributing to prolonged labor and severe back pain. What nursing intervention should be implemented to facilitate fetal rotation and optimize labor progress?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging frequent position changes, including the hands-and-knees position, is the most appropriate nursing intervention in this scenario. This position is known to help rotate the baby from a persistent posterior position to an optimal anterior position for delivery. The hands-and-knees position can help take pressure off the mother's back, alleviate back pain, and facilitate the rotation of the baby's head to engage in the mother's pelvis, thus promoting labor progress. It is a non-invasive and effective way to promote fetal rotation without the need for immediate instrumental delivery or intravenous analgesics. Continuous fetal monitoring is important for assessing fetal well-being but would not directly address the issue of posterior fetal position and the associated prolonged labor.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a wide QRS complex with absence of P waves. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a potentially life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by wide QRS complexes and absence of P waves on electrocardiogram (ECG). Patients with VT may present with symptoms such as chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope due to reduced cardiac output and ineffective pumping of the heart. VT is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent hemodynamic compromise and potential cardiac arrest. Stable angina typically presents with chest pain that is provoked by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves on ECG. Supraventricular tachycardia typically presents with a narrow QRS complex on ECG.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with weakness, anorexia, and confusion. Laboratory tests reveal severe anemia, low reticulocyte count, elevated serum creatinine, and decreased erythropoietin levels. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presenting with weakness, anorexia, confusion, severe anemia, low reticulocyte count, elevated serum creatinine, and decreased erythropoietin levels is most consistent with renal failure-associated anemia. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to produce adequate amounts of erythropoietin, a hormone responsible for stimulating red blood cell production in the bone marrow. The decreased erythropoietin levels lead to a state of anemia, characterized by low hemoglobin levels and subsequent symptoms of fatigue and weakness. The anemia in renal failure is typically normocytic and normochromic. Additionally, the elevated serum creatinine in this patient is a hallmark of kidney dysfunction.

Question 6 of 9

What symptom is an INDICATOR of cranial nerve involvement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty of speaking and chewing is an indicator of cranial nerve involvement. Cranial nerves are responsible for controlling various functions of the head and neck, including speech and mastication. Impairment of cranial nerve function can lead to difficulty in these activities. In the context of the question, with the patient in the stroke unit, cranial nerve involvement can occur due to the stroke affecting the brain regions responsible for cranial nerve function. Loss of pain sensation, spastic paralysis of the extremities, and forgetfulness with syncope are not specific indicators of cranial nerve involvement in this scenario.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, affecting the genital area. The patient reports a history of similar lesions in the past, occurring during periods of stress. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described, involving multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base in the genital area, is classic for herpes simplex genitalis. This condition is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and is characterized by recurrent outbreaks of painful vesicles in the genital or perianal area. The history of similar lesions occurring during periods of stress is also suggestive of herpes simplex virus reactivation. Genital warts (condyloma acuminata) typically present as painless, fleshy growths in the genital area caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Syphilis manifests as a painless ulcer known as a chancre, which is not described in the presentation. Molluscum contagiosum presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication, rather than vesicles.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with gradual-onset weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, and positive Babinski sign. Imaging reveals demyelinating plaques in the white matter of the brain and spinal cord. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described - gradual-onset weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, positive Babinski sign, and demyelinating plaques in the white matter of the brain and spinal cord - are indicative of multiple sclerosis (MS). MS is an autoimmune disease where the body's immune system attacks the myelin sheath, leading to the formation of plaques in the central nervous system. The characteristic symptoms of MS include weakness, spasticity (stiffness in muscles), hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflex responses), and positive Babinski sign (upward movement of the big toe). While ALS (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) presents with progressive muscle weakness and atrophy without sensory involvement and demyelinating plaques, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is typically an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy affecting peripheral nerves rather than the central nervous system, and myast

Question 9 of 9

Lillian asks the nurse the cause of this ailment. Which of the following would the nurse explain as predisposing factors of mastitis? (Select all that apply) I. Milk stasis II. Nipple trauma III. Using alcohol in cleaning nipples IV. Baby 's sitting position

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Mastitis is typically caused by bacterial infection, with predisposing factors including milk stasis (I) and nipple trauma (II). Milk stasis occurs when milk is not effectively removed from the breast, leading to a build-up that can block ducts and predispose to infection. Nipple trauma, such as cracks or damage, can provide entry points for bacteria to infect the breast tissue. Factors like using alcohol in cleaning nipples (III) and the baby's sitting position (IV) are not directly associated with the development of mastitis.

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