ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers are medications commonly used in the management of heart failure. One of the therapeutic effects of beta-blockers is to decrease the heart rate. By blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart, beta-blockers help to slow down the heart rate, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve overall heart function. In patients with heart failure, a decreased heart rate is a favorable outcome as it can help improve cardiac output and reduce symptoms of heart failure such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Monitoring the heart rate is an important assessment parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of beta-blocker therapy in patients with heart failure. Therefore, a decreased heart rate would indicate a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy in this patient.
Question 2 of 9
Because Mr. Steve cannot pay for his medical bills, he is referred to the social worker. which of the following rights is applicable in this case the right to_______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The right to considerate and respectful care irrespective of socio-economic status is applicable in this case because Mr. Steve is facing financial difficulties in paying for his medical bills. This right ensures that all patients receive proper treatment and care regardless of their ability to pay. It emphasizes that every individual deserves to be treated with dignity and respect, regardless of their financial situation. In Mr. Steve's case, being referred to a social worker due to inability to pay should not impact the quality of care and respect he receives from healthcare providers.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints. Laboratory tests reveal elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), positive rheumatoid factor (RF), and presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The combination of recurrent joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints along with elevated ESR, positive RF, and presence of anti-CCP antibodies is classic for rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Elevated ESR indicates inflammation, positive rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody commonly found in the serum of patients with RA, and the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies further supports the diagnosis of RA. These laboratory findings along with the clinical presentation are highly suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), ankylosing spondylitis (AS), and psoriatic arthritis (PsA) can have overlapping symptoms with RA, but the specific combination of elevated ESR, positive RF, and anti-CCP antibodies points more towards RA in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
To be more responsible, a nurse needs to understand the elements of the communication process. When she initiates interpersonal communication, the element involved is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The element involved when a nurse initiates interpersonal communication is the sender. In the communication process, the sender is the person who initiates the message or information to be conveyed to the receiver. In this case, the nurse is taking on the role of the sender by initiating the communication with the patient, another healthcare professional, or any other individual. The sender is responsible for encoding the message and selecting the appropriate channel to convey it effectively. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse is the one initiating communication, making her the sender in the communication process.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after a trip to sub-Saharan Africa is highly indicative of malaria. Specifically, the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination points towards Plasmodium falciparum as the most likely causative agent. Plasmodium falciparum is the most deadly of the Plasmodium species that cause malaria and is responsible for the majority of severe malaria cases worldwide. It is transmitted through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes. Treatment for Plasmodium falciparum infection usually involves antimalarial medications such as artemisinin-based combination therapies.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements BEST describes Public Health Nursing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Public Health Nursing is a specialized field of nursing that focuses on promoting and protecting the health of populations and communities rather than individuals. One of the key principles of Public Health Nursing is the emphasis on health promotion and disease prevention strategies. This involves educating and empowering individuals, families, and communities to adopt healthy behaviors and lifestyles in order to prevent illness and improve overall well-being. Public Health Nurses work to address the root causes of health disparities and advocate for policies and programs that promote the health of entire populations. While providing care to sick individuals may be a component of Public Health Nursing, the primary focus is on preventing illness and promoting health at the community level.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increased dyspnea and cough productive of purulent sputum. On auscultation, coarse crackles are heard bilaterally. Which complication of COPD is the patient most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient with a history of COPD presenting with increased dyspnea, cough productive of purulent sputum, and coarse crackles on auscultation is most likely experiencing an acute exacerbation of COPD. Acute exacerbations in COPD are defined as sustained worsening of the patient's respiratory symptoms beyond normal day-to-day variations, leading to a change in medication. Common triggers for exacerbations include respiratory infections, air pollution, and non-compliance with medications.
Question 8 of 9
In case of poisoning, the nurse is aware that the main goals in poisoning are to ________. I. inactivate the poison II. administer the specific antidote III. induce the patient to vomit IV. support vital organ functions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of poisoning, the main goals are to inactivate the poison to prevent further harm, administer the specific antidote if available to counteract the effects of the poison, and support vital organ functions to help the patient recover. Inducing the patient to vomit (III) is not always recommended as it can potentially cause more harm, especially if the ingested substance is corrosive. Therefore, the most appropriate goals in poisoning are to inactivate the poison, administer the specific antidote, and support vital organ functions.
Question 9 of 9
What condition is NOT likely to developing Sherry?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sherry is a type of fortified wine produced in Spain. It is not associated with the development of hyperkalemia, which is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia is commonly caused by kidney dysfunction, certain medications, or excessive intake of potassium-rich foods. Drinking Sherry is not likely to cause hyperkalemia. On the other hand, Sherry consumption can potentially contribute to tooth decay, gastric ulcers, and rectal bleeding due to its acidity and alcohol content.