ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers are medications commonly used in the management of heart failure. One of the therapeutic effects of beta-blockers is to decrease the heart rate. By blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart, beta-blockers help to slow down the heart rate, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve overall heart function. In patients with heart failure, a decreased heart rate is a favorable outcome as it can help improve cardiac output and reduce symptoms of heart failure such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Monitoring the heart rate is an important assessment parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of beta-blocker therapy in patients with heart failure. Therefore, a decreased heart rate would indicate a therapeutic effect of beta-blocker therapy in this patient.
Question 2 of 9
What condition is NOT likely to developing Sherry?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sherry is a type of fortified wine produced in Spain. It is not associated with the development of hyperkalemia, which is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia is commonly caused by kidney dysfunction, certain medications, or excessive intake of potassium-rich foods. Drinking Sherry is not likely to cause hyperkalemia. On the other hand, Sherry consumption can potentially contribute to tooth decay, gastric ulcers, and rectal bleeding due to its acidity and alcohol content.
Question 3 of 9
What response should the nurse use in dealing with this behavior?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supplying the patient with paper tissues to use when touching doorknobs is the most appropriate response in this situation. This action acknowledges and respects the patient's anxiety while providing a practical solution to help her cope. Forcing her to touch doorknobs or discouraging her concerns would not address the underlying anxiety and may lead to increased distress. Encouraging her to scrub doorknobs with a strong antiseptic is not necessary and may exacerbate her anxiety. Explaining that her concerns are part of her illness may invalidate her feelings and is not a constructive way to address the situation. Supplying her with paper tissues allows her to feel more comfortable while still being able to navigate her daily activities.
Question 4 of 9
In case of poisoning, the nurse is aware that the main goals in poisoning are to ________. I. inactivate the poison II. administer the specific antidote III. induce the patient to vomit IV. support vital organ functions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of poisoning, the main goals are to inactivate the poison to prevent further harm, administer the specific antidote if available to counteract the effects of the poison, and support vital organ functions to help the patient recover. Inducing the patient to vomit (III) is not always recommended as it can potentially cause more harm, especially if the ingested substance is corrosive. Therefore, the most appropriate goals in poisoning are to inactivate the poison, administer the specific antidote, and support vital organ functions.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and signs of hypotension. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST- segment elevation in the inferior leads. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, and ST-segment elevation on an ECG in the inferior leads are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). An acute MI occurs when there is a sudden blockage of blood flow to a part of the heart muscle, leading to tissue damage. This causes symptoms such as chest pain due to ischemia, dyspnea due to heart failure, and hypotension due to poor cardiac output. The ST-segment elevation seen on the ECG is indicative of significant myocardial injury. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in acute MI to prevent further complications and to minimize damage to the heart muscle. It is important to differentiate an acute MI from stable or unstable angina or other cardiovascular disorders, as the management and prognosis vary significantly.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-phosphorus diet. Which dietary choice indicates understanding of the prescribed diet?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grilled chicken breast is a suitable choice for a low-phosphorus diet because poultry is typically lower in phosphorus compared to dairy products (like cheese), nuts (like almonds), and whole grains (like wheat toast). This option indicates an understanding of the need to restrict phosphorus intake, which is important for individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent complications.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Nilda immediately responds to any cry from her pediatric patients because it is, which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Nilda immediately responds to any cry from her pediatric patients to attend to her patients who cannot communicate verbally. Crying is one of the few ways infants and young children communicate their needs and discomforts. By responding promptly to their cries, Nurse Nilda can assess and address potential issues such as hunger, pain, discomfort, or other needs that the child may have. This enhances the quality of care provided and helps in comforting and soothing the child, ultimately promoting their well-being and building trust between the nurse and the patient.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a common complication associated with Dupuytren's contracture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dupuytren's contracture is a condition characterized by the thickening and tightening of the tissue beneath the skin of the hand, leading to the fingers being pulled into a bent position. One of the common complications associated with Dupuytren's contracture is the development of a Swan-neck deformity. This deformity is characterized by hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joint and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint. It is important to recognize and address complications like Swan-neck deformity in individuals with Dupuytren's contracture to prevent further functional impairment and disability.
Question 9 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage liver cancer experiences severe nausea and vomiting despite antiemetic therapy. What should the palliative nurse consider when addressing the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences severe nausea and vomiting despite current antiemetic therapy, the palliative nurse should consider switching to a different antiemetic medication with a different mechanism of action. This approach is based on the concept of individual variability in response to medications, as well as the potential development of tolerance to a particular drug. Switching to a different antiemetic with a new mechanism of action can provide the patient with a fresh chance at better symptom control by targeting different receptors or pathways involved in nausea and vomiting. It is important to consult the healthcare team and consider the patient's overall condition and medication history before making any changes in the treatment plan.