A patient with a history of haemophilia A arrives in the emergency department complaining of a “funny feeling” in his elbow. The patient states that he thinks he is bleeding into the joint. Which response by the nurse is correct?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII. In a patient with hemophilia A, which is a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, bleeding into a joint can lead to serious complications. The nurse should notify the physician promptly because the patient may need factor VIII replacement therapy to stop the bleeding and prevent further damage. This is a medical emergency requiring timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Palpating the elbow could exacerbate the bleeding and cause further damage. C: Ordering an x-ray would delay the crucial factor VIII replacement therapy needed to manage the bleeding. D: Applying heat can increase blood flow to the joint, worsening the bleeding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) is indeed given to patients with fluid restrictions, as it provides complete nutrition including fluids, electrolytes, and nutrients. On the other hand, PPN (Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition) is used for patients without fluid restrictions as it provides partial nutrition. A is incorrect because TPN is typically for long-term use and PPN for short-term use. B is incorrect as the caloric requirement does not determine the type of parenteral nutrition. D is incorrect because both TPN and PPN can be used for patients who are unable to eat orally.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 18 falls within this range, indicating adequate respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because an oxygen saturation of 91% is below the normal range of 95-100%, suggesting potential respiratory insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as frank blood suction from the tube indicates a serious issue such as bleeding, not adequate respiratory condition. Choice D is also incorrect as the presence of a moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions may indicate a respiratory infection or other respiratory issue, not necessarily adequate respiratory condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s airway should be assessed first. This is because airway management is the top priority in any emergency situation to ensure the patient can breathe. Without a patent airway, the patient's oxygenation and ventilation will be compromised, leading to serious complications or death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the airway takes precedence over determining the reason for admission, reviewing medications, or assessing past medical history in an unconscious patient. These other assessments are important but not as critical as securing the airway to maintain the patient's breathing and oxygenation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using two pillows to raise the head can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombosis in a client with polycythemia vera. This condition involves an increased production of red blood cells, leading to thicker blood and potential clot formation. Elevating the head too much can impede blood flow, exacerbating the risk of clotting. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements indicating good self-care practices and physical activity, which are beneficial for clients with polycythemia vera to improve circulation and overall health.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ambulate with assistance. Ambulating helps prevent further bone loss and strengthens muscles, important for osteoporosis patients. Bedrest can worsen bone density loss. Encouraging fluids and providing a high-protein diet are important for overall health but do not directly address the weakness associated with osteoporosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after a lumbar puncture to prevent complications like post-lumbar puncture headache. Lying flat helps maintain CSF pressure and reduce the risk of leakage. B: Keeping the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. C: Monitoring pedal pulses q4h is irrelevant to post-lumbar puncture care. D: Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours is not recommended after a lumbar puncture as it may increase the risk of complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Encourage fluid intake of 3000ml/day Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake of 3000ml/day helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of infection spread. Adequate hydration also prevents further stone formation. Incorrect Choices: A: Administering IV fluids and blood transfusions may not directly address the urinary tract infection. B: Administering narcotic analgesics may mask symptoms but not treat the root cause of the infection. D: Suggesting herbs or spices does not address the need for adequate fluid intake to manage the urinary tract infection.