A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with furosemide therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Previous pregnancy experience is crucial for understanding the patient's obstetric history and potential risks. Step 2: It helps in identifying any complications or issues that may arise during the current pregnancy. Step 3: Laboratory results, prenatal check-up records, and diagnostic test results provide additional information but do not offer insights into the patient's past pregnancy experiences. Summary: Choice C is the most important as it directly relates to the patient's obstetric history, while the other options focus on current data that may not provide the same level of context.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the licensure examination aims to assess if candidates meet the expected competency standards to practice nursing safely and effectively. This process ensures that only qualified individuals enter the profession, maintaining high standards of care. Choice A is incorrect because the exam goes beyond applying theory to include practical skills. Choice B is incorrect as protecting the public is the outcome of ensuring competency. Choice C is incorrect as the exam evaluates the full scope of nursing practice, not just its application.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: One potential complication of epidural analgesia in labor is maternal hypotension. The epidural analgesic can cause vasodilation, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Maternal hypotension can result in decreased placental perfusion, which may jeopardize fetal well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor the maternal blood pressure closely and intervene promptly if hypotension occurs by providing IV fluids or administering medication to raise blood pressure. Uterine hyperstimulation, fetal tachycardia, and respiratory depression are not typically associated with epidural analgesia as complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct immediate action is to inform the surgeon and anesthesiologist (Choice A) because a sudden decrease in oxygen saturation during surgery is a critical situation that requires prompt attention from the entire surgical team. The surgeon and anesthesiologist need to be made aware of the situation so that they can assess the patient's condition and make any necessary adjustments to the surgical procedure or anesthesia delivery. Increasing the flow rate of oxygen (Choice B) may help temporarily but does not address the underlying cause of the oxygen desaturation. Checking the endotracheal tube placement (Choice C) is important but may not be the immediate priority in this critical situation. Assessing the patient's respiratory status (Choice D) is important but should be done after informing the surgeon and anesthesiologist to ensure coordinated and timely interventions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to ask questions and express concerns promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care. This approach fosters communication, understanding, and collaboration between the nurse and patient, leading to better medication adherence. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks patient involvement. Choice B is helpful but does not necessarily empower the patient. Choice D is directive and does not encourage active participation or empowerment.