A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Every year. Annual assessment aligns with American Heart Association guidelines to monitor these key health indicators regularly for early detection and management of potential cardiovascular risks. More frequent assessments (A) may be unnecessary and burdensome. Less frequent assessments (C, D) increase the risk of missing important changes in health status that could lead to adverse outcomes. Regular yearly assessments allow for timely interventions and adjustments to promote optimal cardiovascular health.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-line antipsychotic commonly used to manage agitation in delirium due to its rapid onset and minimal sedative effects. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce agitation and combativeness. Melatonin (A) is not effective for acute agitation. Diazepam (C) can worsen confusion in elderly patients and is not recommended for delirium. Gabapentin (D) is not indicated for managing agitation in delirium and may not be effective in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential congenital deformity. This observation suggests a condition called "low-set ears," which can be a sign of certain congenital anomalies affecting the development of the head and neck structures during fetal growth. It is important to investigate further to rule out any associated syndromes or genetic disorders. Choice A: Normal anatomical variation is incorrect because this positioning is not commonly considered a normal variation in the general population. Choice C: Increased risk of hearing loss is incorrect as the position of the ears alone does not directly correlate with hearing loss. Choice D: No clinical significance is incorrect because this observation warrants further evaluation to assess for potential underlying issues.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because syphilis during pregnancy can lead to adverse outcomes for the fetus, such as spontaneous abortion or congenital syphilis. This is due to the ability of the Treponema pallidum bacterium to cross the placenta and infect the fetus. Testing pregnant women for syphilis helps identify and treat the infection early to prevent these complications. Choice B is incorrect because hormonal changes do not trigger activation of latent syphilis. Choice C is incorrect as syphilis can be transmitted to the fetus at any point during pregnancy, not just in the third trimester. Choice D is incorrect because while untreated syphilis can have various complications, neonatal respiratory distress is not a direct consequence of syphilis infection during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lymph node. A mobile mass that is palpable and moves in multiple directions is characteristic of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are part of the immune system and can move freely when touched. Incorrect choices: A: Cancer - A cancerous mass would typically be fixed and not mobile. C: Deep scar - Scars are usually fixed and do not move when touched. D: Muscle - Muscles are usually deeper in the body and not typically palpable as a mobile mass.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide thickened liquids and soft foods. This intervention helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of food or liquids entering the airway. Thickened liquids are easier to control while swallowing, decreasing the chance of aspiration. Soft foods are also easier to chew and swallow, further reducing the risk. Choice A is incorrect because eating quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after meals can actually increase the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect as large meals can increase the likelihood of swallowing difficulties and aspiration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Supraspinatus. This muscle is responsible for initiating abduction movement at the shoulder joint. It is located on the top of the shoulder blade and assists in lifting the arm away from the body. The other choices, B: Infraspinatus, C: Levator scapulae muscle, and D: Subscapularis, are not involved in initiating abduction movement at the shoulder. Infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation, Levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula, and Subscapularis assists in internal rotation of the shoulder joint.