ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.
Question 2 of 9
Pregnant women are evaluated for syphilis with serology testing because:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because syphilis during pregnancy can lead to adverse outcomes for the fetus, such as spontaneous abortion or congenital syphilis. This is due to the ability of the Treponema pallidum bacterium to cross the placenta and infect the fetus. Testing pregnant women for syphilis helps identify and treat the infection early to prevent these complications. Choice B is incorrect because hormonal changes do not trigger activation of latent syphilis. Choice C is incorrect as syphilis can be transmitted to the fetus at any point during pregnancy, not just in the third trimester. Choice D is incorrect because while untreated syphilis can have various complications, neonatal respiratory distress is not a direct consequence of syphilis infection during pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
Guidelines for the primary prevention of stroke recommend that aspirin be used in which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because guidelines for primary stroke prevention recommend using aspirin in individuals whose risk of stroke is high enough for the benefits to outweigh the risks. This is based on assessing individual risk factors such as age, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, and history of cardiovascular diseases to determine if the potential benefits of aspirin therapy in reducing the risk of stroke outweigh the potential risks such as gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin should not be used regardless of risk level, based on gender, or in specific populations without considering individual risk factors to ensure the benefits outweigh the risks.
Question 4 of 9
An 86-year-old man with no ADL deficits who has stopped driving because of macular degeneration is evaluated for a urinary tract infection associated with urinary retention. The consulting urologist places a Foley catheter and sends a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level that comes back 12 ng/mL. Three months later after the Foley has been removed and he has had a good response to tamsulosin, his PSA is still 10 ng/mL. What is the appropriate next step in managing this man’s prostate problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Repeat PSA in 6 months. In this case, the patient's PSA levels have decreased from 12 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL after treatment with tamsulosin and removal of the Foley catheter. Given the improvement in PSA levels, it is reasonable to monitor for further changes before considering invasive procedures like transrectal ultrasound and biopsy (choice A), which may not be necessary at this time. Empiric finasteride (choice B) is not indicated as the patient is already responding well to tamsulosin. A bone scan (choice C) is not necessary at this stage as there are no indications of metastasis. Therefore, repeating the PSA in 6 months allows for continued monitoring of the patient's prostate health without subjecting him to unnecessary procedures.
Question 5 of 9
A 49-year-old truck driver comes to the emergency room for shortness of breath and swelling in his ankles. He is diagnosed with congestive heart failure and admitted to the hospital. You are the student assigned to do the patient's complete history and physical examination. When you palpate the pulse, what do you expect to feel?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Small amplitude, weak. In congestive heart failure, the heart's ability to pump effectively is compromised, leading to decreased cardiac output. This results in a weakened pulse with reduced amplitude. Palpating a small, weak pulse in this patient is expected due to poor cardiac function. Choices A and C are incorrect because a large, forceful pulse is not expected in congestive heart failure, and a normal pulse may not reflect the compromised cardiac function. Choice D, bigeminal, refers to an abnormal rhythm characterized by every other heartbeat being premature and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure.
Question 6 of 9
Which of these statements about frailty are false?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because clinical diagnosis of anxiety or depression can indeed have an effect on frailty rates. Anxiety and depression can contribute to the development and progression of frailty through various mechanisms such as decreased physical activity, poor nutrition, and social isolation. This can lead to a higher risk of frailty in individuals with mental health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because both prominent frailty models (e.g., Fried's phenotype model and Rockwood's accumulation of deficits model) do consider age as a component for defining frailty, individuals who are prefrail are at a higher risk of progressing to frailty rather than becoming robust, and frailty diagnosis has been shown to be valuable in preoperative assessment as it helps identify patients who may not do well with surgical interventions.
Question 7 of 9
Which is true of the pectinate or dentate line?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pectinate or dentate line is the border between the anal canal and the rectum. This is true because it represents the transition between the endoderm-derived upper anal canal and the ectoderm-derived lower anal canal. It is an important anatomical landmark in colorectal surgery and in distinguishing different pathologies in the anal region. Choice A is incorrect because the pectinate or dentate line is not typically palpable. Choice B is incorrect as it does not demarcate areas supplied by different nervous systems. Choice D is incorrect as the pectinate or dentate line is visible on proctoscopic examination due to its distinct appearance.
Question 8 of 9
Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suprapubic. Disorders in the kidneys and ureters typically cause pain in the flank, abdomen, and back due to the location of these organs. The kidneys are located in the flank region, so kidney issues may cause flank pain. Ureters run down towards the bladder, so issues in this area can cause pain in the abdomen and back. Suprapubic pain usually indicates issues with the bladder or lower urinary tract, not the kidneys or ureters. Therefore, suprapubic pain is not typically associated with disorders in the kidneys and ureters.
Question 9 of 9
A 78-year-old male is being treated for hypertension. The nurse knows that the most appropriate first-line therapy in older adults is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. In older adults, diuretics are considered the most appropriate first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure and preventing complications such as heart failure. Diuretics are well-tolerated, have a long history of use, and are cost-effective. They are especially beneficial in older adults with volume overload or fluid retention. Beta-blockers (B) may be less effective in older adults and can have more side effects. ACE inhibitors (C) are commonly used but may pose risks of hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction in older adults. Calcium channel blockers (D) are effective but may increase the risk of falls and fractures in older adults.