A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-phosphorus diet. Which dietary choice indicates understanding of the prescribed diet?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-phosphorus diet. Which dietary choice indicates understanding of the prescribed diet?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Grilled chicken breast is a suitable choice for a low-phosphorus diet because poultry is typically lower in phosphorus compared to dairy products (like cheese), nuts (like almonds), and whole grains (like wheat toast). This option indicates an understanding of the need to restrict phosphorus intake, which is important for individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent complications.

Question 2 of 9

Whose responsibility is it to obtain informed consent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The responsibility of obtaining informed consent typically falls on the physician or the healthcare provider who is performing the procedure or treatment. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider explains the procedure, its risks, benefits, possible alternatives, and potential outcomes to the patient or their legal representative. The patient must have a comprehensive understanding of these aspects before agreeing to the treatment. While nurses, nurse managers, anesthesiologists, midwives, and other healthcare professionals may assist in the consent process by providing information or clarifications, the ultimate responsibility lies with the physician. This is because the physician is usually the one with the expertise and knowledge about the specific procedure or treatment being performed.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a severe fungal infection demonstrates impaired neutrophil function. Which of the following cellular processes is most likely to be affected in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in immune defense against pathogens, particularly in phagocytosis - the process by which they engulf and destroy invading microorganisms. In a severe fungal infection, impaired neutrophil function would most likely affect their ability to effectively perform phagocytosis, leading to a compromised immune response against the fungal pathogen. This would result in increased susceptibility to the infection and potentially severe outcomes for the patient. Antibody production, cytokine secretion, and mast cell degranulation are important components of the immune response, but neutrophils are primarily responsible for phagocytosis in the innate immune system.

Question 4 of 9

What is the BEST urine sample to be used for an accurate result of pregnancy test done at home?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: First-voided morning urine is the best urine sample to be used for an accurate result of a pregnancy test done at home because it is more concentrated compared to urine samples collected at other times of the day. Overnight, the hCG hormone (human chorionic gonadotropin) builds up in a woman's body, making the early morning urine more likely to contain higher levels of hCG if a woman is pregnant. The concentrated nature of first-morning urine reduces the chances of false-negative results since it provides a higher concentration of the hormone that the test is designed to detect. Therefore, using first-morning urine increases the sensitivity of the pregnancy test and improves the accuracy of the results.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with a history of recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Von Willebrand disease is a hereditary bleeding disorder that results from a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein that plays a key role in platelet adhesion and the initiation of primary hemostasis. The clinical manifestations of von Willebrand disease include recurrent mucocutaneous bleeding, such as nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory findings typically show a prolonged bleeding time due to impaired platelet function, while platelet count, PT (prothrombin time), and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) are usually normal. This distinguishes von Willebrand disease from other bleeding disorders such as hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency), which would show abnormal PT and aPTT due to deficiencies in specific clotting factors. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, would be characterized by a low platelet count

Question 6 of 9

Radical abdominal hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Radical abdominal hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus, ovaries, ligaments (including round ligaments and uterosacral ligaments), and fallopian tubes. This extensive procedure is typically done for cases of invasive gynecologic cancers, most commonly cervical or ovarian cancer. The goal of radical hysterectomy is to remove as much of the cancerous tissue as possible to improve the chances of successful treatment and reduce the risk of cancer recurrence.

Question 7 of 9

Nurse Harper observes Evelyn has knowledge deficit regarding fetal nutrition. Nurse Harper has to explain that the MAIN SOURCE of nutrition for the baby is which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The main source of nutrition for the baby during pregnancy is the placenta. The placenta is an organ that develops inside the uterus during pregnancy and provides essential nutrients and oxygen from the mother's blood to the baby through the umbilical cord. It acts as a barrier, protecting the baby from harmful substances while allowing necessary nutrients to pass through. The amniotic fluid serves as a protective cushion for the baby, the uterus provides the space for the baby to grow, and chorionic villi are small, hair-like structures on the placenta that aid in the exchange of nutrients and waste between the mother and the baby. However, the primary source of nutrition for the baby is the placenta, making option C the correct answer in this scenario.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following actions is INAPPROPRIATE for a nurse leader to apply in a work setting?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: While it is important for nurse leaders to seek input and feedback from staff members, the inappropriate aspect of this action lies in the lack of clarity. The option contains a typographical error "natter" instead of "matter," which may lead to confusion and hinder effective communication. Additionally, the word choice of "opinion" instead of a more structured and strategic approach like "feedback" or "input" could be improved for professional communication in the workplace. Therefore, this action may not be considered appropriate in a work setting due to potential misunderstandings that can arise from the lack of clarity in communication.

Question 9 of 9

An EMT approaches an accident victim. The victim says, "Don't touch me!" The EMT says, you need help, but the victim replies NO! don't touch me. If the EMT takes the victim by the arm and forces the victim into the ambulance, the EMT could be guilty of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Battery refers to the intentional and offensive physical contact with another person without their consent, resulting in harm or injury. In this scenario, the victim clearly expressed their unwillingness to be touched or helped by saying, "Don't touch me!" multiple times. By ignoring the victim's refusal and physically forcing them into the ambulance, the EMT is committing battery even though they may have had good intentions to provide assistance. It is important for medical professionals, including EMTs, to always respect a person's right to refuse medical treatment or assistance, even in emergency situations.

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