ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What is a critical point the nurse should include in the patient education?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms but this is not the critical point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention, but it is not the critical point that the nurse should focus on in patient education.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is being educated about sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil should not be taken with medications containing nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because priapism (prolonged erection) is a serious side effect but does not require immediate intervention like severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as it correctly identifies a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice D is incorrect because not all over-the-counter medications are safe to take with sildenafil, and interactions can occur.
Question 3 of 9
The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.
Question 4 of 9
When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.
Question 5 of 9
A female patient is concerned about the side effects of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What common side effect should the nurse explain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to hormonal changes. Patients should be informed about this possibility as part of their treatment plan. Hair loss (Choice B) is not a common side effect of HRT. Increased libido (Choice C) and decreased energy levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with HRT side effects. Therefore, the nurse should focus on discussing weight gain with the patient.
Question 6 of 9
A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.
Question 7 of 9
A child's thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult's. Which of the following processes that contribute to immunity takes place in the thymus gland?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferation of T cells. The thymus gland is responsible for the maturation and proliferation of T cells, which play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. Option A, differentiation of B cells, is incorrect because B cell maturation primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Option B, production of natural killer (NK) cells, is incorrect as NK cells are mainly produced in the bone marrow and lymph nodes. Option D, filtration of antigens from the blood, is incorrect as antigen filtration is not a primary function of the thymus gland.
Question 8 of 9
An oncology nurse is providing care for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised. The nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis and immune function, including the salient role of cytokines. What is the primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis is to perform a regulatory function in the development of diverse blood cells. Cytokines act as signaling molecules that regulate the immune response and hematopoiesis. Choice A is incorrect because cytokines do not perform phagocytosis; they regulate immune responses. Choice C is incorrect because while cytokines are involved in the formation of some blood cells, they are not considered the basic 'building blocks' of all blood cells. Choice D is incorrect because cytokines are not formed in response to antibodies, but rather play a role in the immune response to various stimuli.
Question 9 of 9
During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.