ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct because raising the head of the bed promotes a more natural position for defecation, allowing gravity to assist. This position helps align the rectum and anal canal, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement. Administering laxatives (Option C) may help, but adjusting the bed position is a non-invasive and more immediate intervention. Withholding pain medication (Option B) could lead to unnecessary discomfort for the patient. Administering a barium enema (Option A) is not indicated for addressing difficulty with defecation.
Question 2 of 9
Several residents of a long-term care facility have developed signs and symptoms of viral conjunctivitis. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse who oversees care in the facility?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Isolate affected residents from residents who have not developed conjunctivitis. This is the most appropriate action to prevent the spread of viral conjunctivitis in a long-term care facility. By isolating affected residents, the nurse can minimize the risk of transmission to other residents. Choice A is incorrect because prophylactic antibiotics are not effective against viral conjunctivitis. Choice B is also incorrect as normal saline does not treat viral conjunctivitis but may provide comfort. Choice C is unnecessary as viral conjunctivitis is typically diagnosed clinically and does not require culture testing.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks’ gestation for a glucose challenge test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution.” This statement demonstrates understanding of the GCT procedure. The glucose challenge test involves drinking a sugary solution, followed by blood drawn 1 hour later to measure blood glucose levels. This timing is crucial for assessing the body's ability to metabolize glucose, which helps in diagnosing gestational diabetes. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: “I have to fast the night before the test.” - This is incorrect as fasting is not required for the GCT. B: “I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose.” - This is incorrect as the GCT typically involves drinking a solution with a standardized amount of glucose, usually 50 g, not 100 g. D: “I should keep track of my baby’s movements between now and the test.” - This is unrelated to the GCT procedure and does not demonstrate understanding of the
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss, causing dehydration and decreased skin turgor. This indicates the patient's hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more common in conditions like bowel obstruction, not necessarily in diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely due to the patient's weakened state from dehydration. D: Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is using core measures to reduce healthdisparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause themost improvement in core measures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Poor people. Focusing on poor people is likely to cause the most improvement in core measures because individuals living in poverty often face multiple barriers to accessing healthcare and have higher rates of chronic conditions. By targeting this group, the nurse can address social determinants of health, improve healthcare access, and address disparities in healthcare outcomes. Other choices (A, C, D) are not as impactful as poverty is a significant factor influencing health disparities.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has been referred to the breast clinic after her most recent mammogram revealed the presence of a lump. The lump is found to be a small, well-defined nodule in the right breast. The oncology nurse should recognize the likelihood of what treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lumpectomy and radiation. For a small, well-defined nodule in the breast, lumpectomy (removal of the lump) followed by radiation therapy is usually the treatment of choice for early-stage breast cancer. This approach aims to preserve the breast while ensuring effective treatment. Partial mastectomy (B) involves removing a larger portion of the breast tissue and is not typically necessary for a small, well-defined nodule. Chemotherapy (C) is generally used for more advanced stages of breast cancer or when the cancer has spread beyond the breast. Total mastectomy (D) is considered when the cancer is more extensive or in cases where lumpectomy is not feasible.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is teaching about the energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. What is the nurse discussing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal metabolic rate (BMR). BMR refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain basic physiological functions at rest. It accounts for about 60-75% of total energy expenditure. It is essential for sustaining life-sustaining activities such as breathing, circulating blood, and maintaining body temperature. Incorrect Choices: A: Resting energy expenditure (REE) is the total amount of energy expended by the body while at rest, including BMR and additional energy for daily activities. C: Nutrient density refers to the amount of nutrients per calorie in a food item, not the energy needed at rest. D: Nutrients are essential substances in food required for growth, maintenance, and repair, but they do not specifically refer to the energy needed at rest.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is learning about his new diagnosis of asthma with the asthma nurse. What medication has the ability to prevent the onset of acute asthma exacerbations?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Montelukast (Singulair). Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps prevent asthma exacerbations by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is used as a maintenance medication to control and prevent asthma symptoms. Diphenhydramine (A) is an antihistamine used for allergies, not asthma prevention. Albuterol sulfate (C) is a rescue inhaler used for acute asthma symptoms, not prevention. Epinephrine (D) is used for severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), not asthma prevention.
Question 9 of 9
A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, marginal. Placenta previa is classified based on the proximity of the placental edge to the internal os. In a marginal placenta previa, the placental edge just reaches the internal os. This is a crucial distinction as it poses a higher risk for bleeding during labor. Total placenta previa covers the entire internal os, partial placenta previa partially covers the internal os, and low-lying placenta is when the placenta is close to but not covering the internal os. Therefore, D is correct as it accurately describes the specific position of the placenta edge in relation to the internal os in cases of marginal placenta previa.