ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture is scheduled for surgical intervention. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate for this type of fracture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a displaced femoral neck fracture, the most appropriate surgical procedure is usually an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure involves making an incision to reposition the fractured bone fragments and securing them in place with screws or other fixation devices. ORIF allows for better alignment of the fracture, which is crucial for proper healing and minimizing the risk of complications like avascular necrosis or nonunion. Closed reduction and internal fixation (CRIF) may not be as effective for displaced femoral neck fractures due to the complex nature of the fracture and the need for precise realignment and stability provided by an open surgical approach. External fixation is less commonly used for femoral neck fractures and is typically reserved for certain specific cases where internal fixation is not feasible. Closed reduction alone is unlikely to provide adequate stability for a displaced femoral neck fracture and is generally not recommended as the primary surgical treatment for this type of injury.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following conditions is characterized by degenerative changes in the intervertebral discs, leading to narrowing of the disc space and osteophyte formation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spondylosis is a condition characterized by degenerative changes in the intervertebral discs, leading to narrowing of the disc space and the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs). This degenerative process commonly occurs with aging and can cause symptoms such as neck or back pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Spondylosis is a common finding on imaging studies like X-rays and MRI scans in individuals over the age of 50 and is a natural part of the aging process of the spine.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sevelamer is a medication commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. By reducing serum phosphate levels, sevelamer helps manage complications associated with hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease patients, such as mineral and bone disorders. Other medications like epoetin alfa are used to treat anemia commonly seen in chronic kidney disease patients, while cinacalcet is used to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid levels and is not indicated for reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease patients.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the formation of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate stones within the renal collecting system?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nephrolithiasis refers to the formation of stones within the kidney or urinary tract. The most common types of kidney stones are either composed of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate. When these stones form within the renal collecting system, they can lead to symptoms such as flank pain, hematuria, and urinary obstruction. Ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction and ureterovesical junction (UVJ) obstruction are specific types of blockages within the urinary system that can be caused by kidney stones but are not characteristic of the stone formation itself. Renal colic is the term used to describe the severe pain associated with the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter.