A patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture is scheduled for surgical intervention. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate for this type of fracture?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture is scheduled for surgical intervention. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate for this type of fracture?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: For a displaced femoral neck fracture, the most appropriate surgical procedure is usually an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure involves making an incision to reposition the fractured bone fragments and securing them in place with screws or other fixation devices. ORIF allows for better alignment of the fracture, which is crucial for proper healing and minimizing the risk of complications like avascular necrosis or nonunion. Closed reduction and internal fixation (CRIF) may not be as effective for displaced femoral neck fractures due to the complex nature of the fracture and the need for precise realignment and stability provided by an open surgical approach. External fixation is less commonly used for femoral neck fractures and is typically reserved for certain specific cases where internal fixation is not feasible. Closed reduction alone is unlikely to provide adequate stability for a displaced femoral neck fracture and is generally not recommended as the primary surgical treatment for this type of injury.

Question 2 of 9

The ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease is knows as _________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure. In the context of screening tests for diseases, validity is crucial in assessing whether the test can correctly distinguish between individuals who have the disease (true positives) and those who do not have the disease (true negatives). This includes the ability to minimize false positives (incorrectly identifying someone as having the disease) and false negatives (incorrectly identifying someone as not having the disease). Therefore, when assessing the ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease, we are essentially evaluating its validity.

Question 3 of 9

Nursing, as a human science, deals with the critical and fundamental differences in attitude toward their respective phenomena. Which of the following is an aim o: human sciences?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The aim of human sciences, including nursing as a human science, is to make meaningful interpretations of the phenomena being studied. Unlike natural sciences that may focus on prediction, control, or seeking causal explanations, the human sciences aim to understand and interpret human experiences, behaviors, and relationships in a meaningful way. In nursing, this involves not only understanding the biological aspects of health and illness but also considering the holistic and humanistic aspects of care, such as emotions, values, beliefs, and perceptions. By making meaningful interpretations, nurses can better understand their patients and provide individualized and patient-centered care.

Question 4 of 9

When Nurse Ace suubitted a report to the physician that she committed an error in medication. This is an example of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nurse Ace submitting a report to the physician about committing an error in medication demonstrates accountability. Accountability in healthcare refers to the responsibility of individuals to answer for their actions, decisions, and behaviors in the professional setting. By taking ownership of the mistake and informing the physician, Nurse Ace is showing accountability for her actions, ensuring that patient safety remains a priority. Compliance with reporting errors is essential for quality improvement and patient safety in healthcare settings.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with multiple, discrete, flesh-colored papules with central umbilication on the trunk and extremities. The lesions are asymptomatic and have been present for several months. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by the poxvirus. It typically presents as multiple, flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with a central umbilication (dimple or depression in the center) on the skin. These lesions are often found on the trunk and extremities and can persist for several months. Molluscum contagiosum is commonly seen in children but can also occur in adults, especially those with weakened immune systems. The lesions are usually asymptomatic but can become inflamed or itchy in some cases. Treatment options include observation, topical therapies, cryotherapy, or curettage.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) for anemia management. Which parameter should the nurse monitor closely during ESA therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) for anemia management, the parameter that should be monitored closely by the nurse is the hemoglobin levels. Hemoglobin levels indicate the patient's response to ESA therapy and are essential in assessing the effectiveness of the treatment in addressing anemia. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps ensure that the patient's anemia is controlled within the target range to avoid both the risks of under-treatment (resulting in persistent anemia) and over-treatment (increased risk of adverse outcomes such as hypertension, stroke, or cardiovascular events).

Question 7 of 9

The PRC-Board of Nursing (PR-BON) has the power to regulate Nursing Practice in the Philippines. The regulatory functions include the following except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The Philippine Regulatory Commission - Board of Nursing (PRC-BON) has the power to regulate nursing practice in the Philippines.

Question 8 of 9

The FIRST PRIORITY nursing intervention during the immediate postpartum period is focused on

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is a serious complication that can occur within the first 24 hours after childbirth. It is the leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide. Therefore, during the immediate postpartum period, the first priority nursing intervention should be focused on observing for signs and symptoms of postpartum hemorrhage, such as excessive bleeding, abnormal vital signs, and changes in uterine tone. Early detection and prompt intervention can prevent severe complications and save the mother's life. Monitoring urinary output, taking vital signs, and checking level of responsiveness are important aspects of postpartum care but observing for postpartum hemorrhage takes precedence due to its critical nature.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sevelamer is a medication commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. By reducing serum phosphate levels, sevelamer helps manage complications associated with hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease patients, such as mineral and bone disorders. Other medications like epoetin alfa are used to treat anemia commonly seen in chronic kidney disease patients, while cinacalcet is used to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid levels and is not indicated for reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease patients.

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