ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture is scheduled for surgical intervention. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate for this type of fracture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a displaced femoral neck fracture, the most appropriate surgical procedure is usually an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure involves making an incision to reposition the fractured bone fragments and securing them in place with screws or other fixation devices. ORIF allows for better alignment of the fracture, which is crucial for proper healing and minimizing the risk of complications like avascular necrosis or nonunion. Closed reduction and internal fixation (CRIF) may not be as effective for displaced femoral neck fractures due to the complex nature of the fracture and the need for precise realignment and stability provided by an open surgical approach. External fixation is less commonly used for femoral neck fractures and is typically reserved for certain specific cases where internal fixation is not feasible. Closed reduction alone is unlikely to provide adequate stability for a displaced femoral neck fracture and is generally not recommended as the primary surgical treatment for this type of injury.
Question 2 of 5
When determining the existence of malpractice, which factor is NOT considered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When determining the existence of malpractice, intent is not considered as a factor. Malpractice typically involves unintentional actions or negligence rather than a deliberate intent to cause harm. The key factors that are usually considered in a malpractice case include duty (a legal obligation to provide a certain standard of care), causation (the link between the provider's actions and the patient's injury), and the existence of an injury resulting from the provider's actions or omissions. Intent does not play a direct role in malpractice cases, as they are focused on the standard of care provided by the healthcare professional and the harm caused as a result.
Question 3 of 5
Nurse Rosa is able to know the patterns of occurrence and distribution of diseases in the community . Per record she found out there had been cases of rabies at irregular intervals scattered in particular places. This occurrence rates to ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The occurrence of rabies at irregular intervals scattered in particular places indicates a sporadic pattern. Sporadic diseases are those that occur infrequently and irregularly in a population. These diseases do not have a consistent pattern of occurrence and are not confined to a specific geographic area or population group. In this case, the cases of rabies being reported at irregular intervals and scattered in particular places suggest a sporadic distribution rather than an endemic (constantly present in a population), epidemic (sudden increase in cases in a specific population), or pandemic (global spread of a disease) pattern.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding due to abnormal proliferation of endometrial tissue outside the uterus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Endometriosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. One common symptom of endometriosis is excessive menstrual bleeding, known as menorrhagia. This excessive bleeding is due to the presence of endometrial tissue in abnormal locations, leading to inflammation, scarring, and blood accumulation. In severe cases, endometriosis can lead to the formation of adhesions, cysts, and scar tissue, causing significant pain and fertility issues for affected individuals. Endometrial hyperplasia, leiomyomas (uterine fibroids), and adenomyosis are other gynecological conditions, but they do not involve the abnormal proliferation of endometrial tissue outside the uterus like endometriosis does.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a berry-shaped aneurysm at the junction of the anterior communicating artery and anterior cerebral artery. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status, along with the presence of a berry-shaped aneurysm on imaging, point towards a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage is the rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm, which commonly occurs at the junction of the anterior communicating artery and anterior cerebral artery. The sudden headache is often described as the "worst headache of my life" and is typically associated with nausea and vomiting. Altered mental status may be present due to the effects of increased intracranial pressure and possible associated brain injury. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent complications such as vasospasm, rebleeding, and ischemic deficits.
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