A patient with a deep tissue infection had Gram-negative rods isolated from the wound culture. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and non-lactose fermenters. What is the most likely causative agent?

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microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient with a deep tissue infection had Gram-negative rods isolated from the wound culture. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and non-lactose fermenters. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative rod, oxidase-positive, and non-lactose fermenter. These characteristics are typical of Pseudomonas species. B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod but is lactose fermenter and usually oxidase-negative. C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative and is more associated with causing shigellosis rather than deep tissue infections.

Question 2 of 9

Fungi are free-living _________ organisms:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: heterotrophic. Fungi are heterotrophic organisms that obtain nutrients by absorbing organic compounds from their environment. They do not produce their own food through photosynthesis (option A: autotrophic) or chemosynthesis (option B: chemotrophic). Fungi also do not rely on light for energy (option D: phototrophic). Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the nutritional mode of fungi.

Question 3 of 9

For measles virus is true that:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contains single-stranded RNA with negative polarity. Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome that is negative-sense. This means it must first be transcribed into positive-sense RNA before it can be translated. Choice A is incorrect as the measles virus does have an outer envelope. Choice C is incorrect as measles virus belongs to the family Paramyxoviridae, not Togaviridae. Choice D is incorrect as measles virus can be grown on cell cultures, specifically on Vero cells.

Question 4 of 9

Which structure protects bacteria from phagocytosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Capsule. Capsules are a protective layer outside the bacterial cell wall that helps bacteria evade phagocytosis by immune cells. The capsule inhibits phagocytic cells from engulfing the bacteria, making it difficult for them to be recognized and destroyed. A: Flagella - Flagella are not involved in protecting bacteria from phagocytosis. They are responsible for bacterial movement. C: Endospore - Endospores are dormant, resistant structures formed by some bacteria in response to harsh conditions. They do not directly protect against phagocytosis. D: Pili - Pili are hair-like structures used for adhesion and conjugation, not for protection against phagocytosis.

Question 5 of 9

Laboratory diagnosis of rabies includes all of these except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Looking for Ernst-Babes granules. Laboratory diagnosis of rabies typically involves looking for Negri bodies in the brain tissue, intracerebrally infecting mice for virus isolation, and using immunofluorescence method to detect viral antigens. Ernst-Babes granules are not associated with rabies virus and are not used in the diagnosis of rabies. Therefore, choice C is incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

A male patient has been diagnosed with gastric ulcer. Bacteriological examination of biopsy material from the affected part of stomach revealed small colonies of gram-negative, oxide reductase-positive flexibacteria that grew on the chocolate agar on the fifth day. Which of the following microorganisms is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent of gastric ulcers. Here's the rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is commonly associated with gastric ulcers. 2. It is a gram-negative bacterium that grows on chocolate agar and is oxide reductase-positive. 3. The slow growth on the fifth day is characteristic of H. pylori. 4. Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter fetus are not typically associated with gastric ulcers. 5. Mycoplasma hominis is a bacterium that lacks a cell wall and is not commonly found in gastric ulcers.

Question 7 of 9

Examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei and four pairs of flagella. The organisms had also two axostyles between the nuclei and a ventral adhesive disc. What protozoan representative was found in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, two axostyles, and a ventral adhesive disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is commonly found in the duodenum and causes giardiasis. Step 3: Lamblia is the correct answer as it specifically matches all the described characteristics. Summary: B, Toxoplasma, is incorrect as it does not match the described features. C, Leishmania, does not have the specific characteristics mentioned. D, Intestinal trichomonad, does not match the detailed descriptions given.

Question 8 of 9

Which description matches most to adenoviruses:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Adenoviruses are DNA viruses, so choices B and C (ssRNA and DNA) are incorrect. 2. Adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid, making choice A the correct description. 3. Choice D is incorrect as adenoviruses do have specific characteristics, making "None of the above" an inaccurate option. In summary, the correct answer A is supported by the fact that adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid and contain double-stranded DNA. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristics of adenoviruses.

Question 9 of 9

How the prepared immunofluorescence slide should be examined?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immunofluorescence slides are examined under a fluorescence microscope with a x100 oil immersion objective. This is because immunofluorescence relies on the detection of fluorescently labeled antibodies, which emit light when excited by a specific wavelength. Using a fluorescence microscope allows for visualization of these labeled antibodies at high magnification and resolution, enabling precise examination of cellular structures and protein localization. Choice B is incorrect as light microscopes are not suitable for visualizing fluorescence. Choice C is incorrect as electron microscopes use electrons, not light, for imaging, which is not compatible with immunofluorescence. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific method for examining immunofluorescence slides.

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