A patient with a deep tissue infection had a wound culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient with a deep tissue infection had a wound culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative points towards coagulase-negative staphylococci like Staphylococcus epidermidis. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, the most likely causative agent in this scenario is Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Question 2 of 9

A dentist examined a 5-year-old boy and found him to have a saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull. Both front maxillary incisors are peg-shaped and have a crescent-shaped notch in the cutting edge. Lymph nodes are not changed. What is the provisional diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late congenital syphilis. The symptoms described align with late congenital syphilis, which includes saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull, peg-shaped incisors, and notched cutting edge. Lymph nodes not being affected is also consistent with late congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis (B) typically presents with more severe symptoms at birth or shortly after. Tertiary syphilis (C) usually occurs years after initial infection and presents with different symptoms. Fluorosis (D) is caused by excessive fluoride intake and does not match the symptoms described.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following antibodies indicates acute measles infection

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anti-measles IgM. During acute measles infection, the body produces IgM antibodies specific to the measles virus. This indicates a recent or current infection. A: Anti-mumps IgM and B: Anti-rubella IgM are specific to mumps and rubella viruses, respectively, not measles. D: Anti-CMV IgM is specific to cytomegalovirus, not measles. In summary, choice C is correct because Anti-measles IgM is the specific antibody indicating acute measles infection, while the other choices are antibodies related to different viruses.

Question 4 of 9

The virus most commonly transmitted during pregnancy is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: cytomegalovirus. CMV is the most common virus transmitted during pregnancy, leading to potential serious complications for the fetus. It can cause birth defects, hearing loss, and developmental delays. CMV is commonly spread through bodily fluids. HIV (B) can also be transmitted during pregnancy but is less common. Herpes simplex virus (C) can be transmitted but typically results in localized infection. Epstein-Barr virus (D) is not commonly transmitted during pregnancy.

Question 5 of 9

Which bacteria produce exotoxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin causing botulism, Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea, and certain strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins causing gastrointestinal illness. Each bacterium has specific exotoxins that can result in severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, all three choices are correct in producing exotoxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is a common cause of pneumonia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. - Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. - Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause pulmonary tuberculosis, which can present as pneumonia-like symptoms. - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, all three bacteria can cause pneumonia, making option D the correct choice. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they each represent a bacterium that can cause pneumonia, so only selecting one of them would not encompass all common causes of pneumonia.

Question 7 of 9

The main function of bacterial ribosomes is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: protein synthesis. Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating messenger RNA into proteins through a process called translation. Ribosomes are composed of both protein and RNA molecules and facilitate the binding of transfer RNA to the messenger RNA to assemble the amino acids in the correct order to form a protein. DNA replication (A) is carried out by enzymes such as DNA polymerase, not ribosomes. Cell wall synthesis (C) is a process involving enzymes that build the structure of the cell wall in bacteria. RNA splicing (D) is a eukaryotic process that involves removing introns from pre-mRNA molecules, which is not a function of bacterial ribosomes.

Question 8 of 9

Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery can be isolated from the patient's blood:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillary dysentery primarily affects the intestinal tract, not the bloodstream. 2. Bacteremia is rare in bacillary dysentery, as the infection is localized. 3. Isolating bacteria from the blood is not a typical diagnostic feature. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Summary: Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery are not typically isolated from the patient's blood due to the localized nature of the infection. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest specific timeframes, which are not relevant to bacteremia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as bacteremia is not associated with bacillary dysentery.

Question 9 of 9

Chlorine belongs to which of the following chemical groups?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Halogens. Chlorine belongs to the halogens group because it is a nonmetal element in group 17 of the periodic table. Halogens are highly reactive elements that have 7 electrons in their outer shell, making them eager to gain an electron to achieve stability. Chlorine specifically is a diatomic molecule with the chemical symbol Cl and atomic number 17. Option B: Heavy metals are elements with high atomic weights and densities, such as lead and mercury, which are not related to chlorine. Option C: Phenols are a class of organic compounds containing a hydroxyl group bonded to an aromatic ring, not related to chlorine. Option D: Alcohols are organic compounds characterized by the presence of a hydroxyl group (-OH), also not related to chlorine.

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