ATI RN
Concepts for Nursing Practice 3rd Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient with a compound, open fracture of the femur is scheduled for immediate surgery. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Given that the patient has a compound, open fracture of the femur and is undergoing immediate surgery, the most critical nursing diagnosis in the immediate postoperative period would be the risk for infection. Open fractures are particularly susceptible to infection due to the exposure of the fracture site to external contaminants. Postoperative care should prioritize infection prevention measures like sterile dressing changes, administration of prophylactic antibiotics, and close monitoring for signs of infection such as increased pain, redness, swelling, or drainage from the wound. Mitigating the risk of infection is crucial to prevent complications and promote optimal healing of the fracture. While the other diagnoses are relevant, addressing the risk for infection takes precedence in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a compound, open fracture of the femur is scheduled for immediate surgery. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Given that the patient has a compound, open fracture of the femur and is undergoing immediate surgery, the most critical nursing diagnosis in the immediate postoperative period would be the risk for infection. Open fractures are particularly susceptible to infection due to the exposure of the fracture site to external contaminants. Postoperative care should prioritize infection prevention measures like sterile dressing changes, administration of prophylactic antibiotics, and close monitoring for signs of infection such as increased pain, redness, swelling, or drainage from the wound. Mitigating the risk of infection is crucial to prevent complications and promote optimal healing of the fracture. While the other diagnoses are relevant, addressing the risk for infection takes precedence in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
During an assessment, the nurse decides to assess a patient’s calcium level. Which action will the nurse take to identify a low calcium level?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Trousseau’s sign test is used to identify low calcium levels in a patient. This test involves inflating a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm above systolic pressure for a few minutes, which can trigger a carpal spasm (wrist and hand flexion) in patients with low calcium levels (hypocalcemia). This is due to increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels. Therefore, conducting a Trousseau’s sign test is the appropriate action to identify a low calcium level in a patient. Palpating turgor of skin, observing the color of the skin, and saving urine to measure 17-ketosteroids are not relevant actions for assessing calcium levels.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which finding would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg in a client in the third trimester of pregnancy is elevated and could indicate the development of preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder that can have adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure accompanied by signs of organ damage, such as proteinuria and changes in other laboratory values. Immediate intervention is required in this situation, as preeclampsia can lead to complications such as seizures (eclampsia), stroke, and placental abruption. It is essential for the nurse to further assess the client and notify the healthcare provider promptly for appropriate management.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath. Which electrocardiogram finding indicates the client is at risk for an alteration in perfusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An isoelectric ST segment on an electrocardiogram can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury, which can lead to a decrease in perfusion to the heart muscle. This finding suggests an increased risk of inadequate blood flow to the heart, potentially resulting in further complications such as a myocardial infarction or altered perfusion to other organs. In a client with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath, identifying this ECG finding is crucial for early intervention and monitoring to prevent further deterioration in perfusion status.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has been vomiting for 4 hours. Which hormone will increase secretion in response to the physiologic changes caused by the vomiting?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes. In response to these physiologic changes caused by vomiting, aldosterone secretion will increase. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase reabsorption of sodium and water, helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance. By increasing aldosterone secretion, the body aims to retain more sodium and water to counteract the effects of vomiting and prevent dehydration.
Question 7 of 9
A 14-year-old child was recently diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. During a follow-up appointment, the mother asks the nurse, "How will this affect my child's ability to play football in the fall?" How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Children diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy should not participate in competitive sports such as football due to the potential risk of sudden cardiac events. Physical activity and sports with lower intensity may be allowed, but organized competitive sports with high intensity (such as football) are generally contraindicated. It is important for the health care team to prioritize the child's safety and well-being over sports participation in cases of cardiomyopathy. The nurse should communicate this information to the mother to help her understand the importance of limiting the child's physical activities to reduce the risk of complications related to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has lost approximately 1,550 mL of blood. The nurse should recognize that the client's shock will be classified as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Class III hemorrhagic shock typically involves the loss of 1,500-2,000 mL of blood, which aligns closely with the approximately 1,550 mL of blood lost by the client in this scenario. Class III shock is considered severe and can lead to significant physiological consequences, including decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, altered mental status, and potential organ dysfunction. Therefore, based on the amount of blood loss and severity of symptoms, the client's shock would be classified as Class III.
Question 9 of 9
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.