ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's symptoms of crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage with odor, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, low blood pressure, and irregular pulse suggest an infection. The history of recent miscarriage raises suspicion for retained products of conception leading to infection. Ectopic pregnancy (choice A) would present with different symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (choice C) typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and high levels of hCG. Endometriosis (choice D) is a chronic condition and not related to the acute symptoms described. In summary, the clinical presentation aligns with uterine infection given the patient's history, symptoms, and vital signs.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has had a total mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient asks the nurse when she can take a shower. What should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Not until the drain is removed. After a mastectomy with immediate reconstruction, there is typically a drain in place to collect fluid. Showering before the drain is removed can increase the risk of infection and disrupt the healing process. It is important to wait until the healthcare provider removes the drain to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Summary: B: On the second postoperative day - Too early, the drain needs to be removed first. C: Now, if you wash gently with soap and water - Incorrect, the drain should be removed before showering. D: Seven days after your surgery - Incorrect, waiting for a specific number of days is not necessary, it depends on when the drain is removed.
Question 3 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with breast cancer states that her physician suspects regional lymph node involvement and told her that there are signs of metastatic disease. The nurse learns that the patient has been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer. What is an implication of this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Stage IV breast cancer indicates distant metastasis, making the patient ineligible for curative surgery. Treatment for stage IV focuses on palliative care to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Summary of Other Choices: B: Stage IV breast cancer is not considered highly treatable as it has spread beyond the breast and nearby lymph nodes, making it more challenging to cure. C: There is no evidence to suggest that stage IV breast cancer will self-resolve. The prognosis for metastatic breast cancer is typically poor. D: The 5-year survival rate for stage IV breast cancer is generally lower than 15%, making this choice incorrect.
Question 4 of 9
After the completion of testing, a childs allergies have been attributed to her familys cat. When introducing the family to the principles of avoidance therapy, the nurse should promote what action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Removing the cat from the family's home. This is the most effective way to prevent allergic reactions in the child. By removing the source of allergens (cat), the child will be exposed to fewer allergens, leading to a reduction in symptoms. B: Administering OTC antihistamines treats symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of the allergy. C: Keeping the cat restricted from the child's bedroom helps reduce exposure, but allergens can still spread throughout the house. D: Maximizing airflow may help reduce allergens in the air but does not eliminate the source of the allergy.
Question 5 of 9
A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious. 1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children. 2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems. 3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus. 4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn. Incorrect choices: A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation. B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox. C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinsons disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patients medication regimen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident. This is because the initial response to levodopa-carbidopa in Parkinson's disease can be very positive, leading to significant symptom relief. However, over time, as the disease progresses and the body adjusts to the medication, adverse effects such as dyskinesias may become more prominent. Choice B is incorrect because the benefits of levodopa-carbidopa can be seen relatively soon after initiation of treatment and do not necessarily take 6 to 9 months to peak. Choice C is incorrect as the temporary improvement is likely related to the medication, given the significant symptom relief experienced. Choice D is incorrect because while benefits may diminish over time, it is not necessarily after 1 or 2 years of treatment, and some patients may continue to benefit from the medication long-term.
Question 7 of 9
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection. A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor. B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation. C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario. Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
Question 8 of 9
Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of condoms to prevent infecting others. This is important because PID is a sexually transmitted infection and using condoms can help prevent transmission to sexual partners. It is crucial to address this topic to ensure the patient understands the importance of safe sex practices. The other choices are incorrect: B: Appropriate use of antibiotics - While antibiotics are used to treat PID, this choice does not address self-care education for prevention. C: Taking measures to prevent pregnancy - While important for overall health, preventing pregnancy is not directly related to self-care for PID. D: The need for a Pap smear every 3 months - Pap smears are not directly related to PID management or prevention. E: The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms - Weight loss is not a direct self-care measure for managing or preventing PID.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is inserting a catheter into a female patient. When the nurse inserts the catheter, no urine is obtained. The nurse suspects the catheter is not in the urethra. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct choice is C because if no urine is obtained, it indicates that the catheter is not in the urethra. The nurse should remove the catheter, wipe with alcohol to maintain cleanliness, and reinsert after lubrication to ensure proper placement in the urethra. This step-by-step approach allows for a more accurate catheter insertion and prevents potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as discarding the catheter and starting over without addressing the issue does not solve the problem. Choice B is incorrect as filling the balloon with sterile water is not relevant to the situation of catheter misplacement. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the catheter in the vagina can lead to infection and is not a recommended practice.