A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's symptoms of crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage with odor, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, low blood pressure, and irregular pulse suggest an infection. The history of recent miscarriage raises suspicion for retained products of conception leading to infection. Ectopic pregnancy (choice A) would present with different symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (choice C) typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and high levels of hCG. Endometriosis (choice D) is a chronic condition and not related to the acute symptoms described. In summary, the clinical presentation aligns with uterine infection given the patient's history, symptoms, and vital signs.

Question 2 of 5

Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.

Question 3 of 5

Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Previous birth of large infant. This factor increases the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus due to a history of delivering a large baby, indicating a higher likelihood of insulin resistance in subsequent pregnancies. Maternal age younger than 25 years (B) is not a known risk factor for gestational diabetes. Being underweight prior to pregnancy (C) is actually associated with a decreased risk of gestational diabetes. A previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus (D) is a separate condition and does not directly increase the risk of gestational diabetes.

Question 4 of 5

A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious. 1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children. 2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems. 3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus. 4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn. Incorrect choices: A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation. B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox. C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.

Question 5 of 5

The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection. A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor. B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation. C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario. Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.

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