ATI RN
Hematological System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who underwent lymphangiography the day before asks the licensed practical nurse (LPN), “Why does my urine look blue?†What should the LPN respond to this patient's concern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because lymphangiography involves injecting a dye into the lymphatic system, which can cause the urine to appear blue temporarily. The LPN should reassure the patient that this is a normal and expected side effect of the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks explanation and may not address the patient's concern. Choice B is unnecessary as there is no urgent need to notify the RN and physician. Choice C is incorrect because blue urine does not necessarily indicate abnormal results, but rather a common side effect of the dye used in the procedure.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Numbness of the extremities. Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can result in neurological symptoms such as numbness and tingling in the extremities. Yellow-tinged sclerae (A) are more indicative of jaundice. A shiny smooth tongue (B) is a characteristic finding in glossitis, not specific to pernicious anemia. Gum bleeding and tenderness (D) are more commonly associated with periodontal disease rather than pernicious anemia.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and asks the nurse to explain how it works. What response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits thrombin. Rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor that works by inhibiting thrombin formation, thus preventing blood clots. Thrombin is a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade. Choices B and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban specifically targets factor Xa and not fibrinogen or vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as rivaroxaban does not actually "thin" the blood; it works by preventing clot formation.
Question 4 of 5
A client is having a bone marrow biopsy and is extremely anxious. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess client fears and coping mechanisms. This is the best action because it allows the nurse to understand the specific concerns and anxieties of the client, enabling personalized support and interventions. It shows empathy and provides a tailored approach to address the client's needs. Summary: - Choice B: Reassuring the client is helpful but may not address the root of the anxiety. - Choice C: Sedating the client may not be necessary if underlying concerns are addressed. - Choice D: Providing false information about being asleep is not ethical and can lead to distrust.
Question 5 of 5
Of the variables listed below, what is the most important factor for survival after relapse of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Time to marrow relapse since initial diagnosis is crucial because early relapse indicates aggressive disease behavior. Step 2: Early relapse implies a higher likelihood of resistance to treatment, leading to poorer survival outcomes. Step 3: Rapid relapse often signifies a more challenging disease course, requiring prompt and aggressive interventions for better prognosis. Summary: - Choice A is correct as early relapse indicates aggressive disease behavior and resistance to treatment. - Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly impact the urgency and aggressiveness of treatment needed for survival post-relapse.