ATI RN
Microbiology A Systems Approach Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovered. Some time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinfection. This is because the patient fully recovered from the initial syphilis infection after antibiotic therapy, indicating the elimination of the pathogen. Subsequently getting infected again with Treponema pallidum suggests a new exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a new infection. Recurrence (B) would imply the reactivation of the same infection, which is not the case here. Superinfection (C) refers to a new infection that occurs on top of an existing infection, which is not the scenario described. Secondary infection (D) typically refers to an infection that occurs after an initial infection weakens the immune system, which is not the case in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
Generalization of an intestine infection can be seen in
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, which can lead to intestinal infections. 2. Shigella flexneri causes dysentery, primarily affecting the colon. 3. Helicobacter pylori causes stomach ulcers, not intestine infections. Summary: A is correct as Salmonella typhi causes intestine infection. B and C are incorrect as they cause different gastrointestinal issues. D is incorrect as A is a valid choice.
Question 3 of 5
A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements about family Arenaviridae is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae. This virus is a well-known member of the Arenaviridae family and is associated with various diseases. Option A is incorrect as Arenaviruses can be isolated from clinical materials using suitable methods. Option B is incorrect because Arenaviruses replicate in the cytoplasm, not the nucleus. Option D is incorrect as Arenaviruses can infect various hosts, not just humans. Therefore, the statement that lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae is true.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following bacterial structures has endotoxic activity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lipopolysaccharides. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are major components of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and are known to have endotoxic activity. LPS can trigger a strong immune response leading to inflammation and septic shock. Choice B, Lipoproteins of Braun, are not known to have endotoxic activity. Choice C, Protein A, is a surface protein found in Staphylococcus aureus and is not associated with endotoxic activity. Choice D, None, is incorrect as LPS is indeed a bacterial structure with endotoxic activity.
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