A patient who recently started on a first generation antipsychotic reports sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge. Which of the following actions by the PMHNP is appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevated prolactin levels are a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics, leading to sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge. Ordering a blood test to examine prolactin levels is appropriate to monitor for this side effect. Option B is incorrect as sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge are not normal responses to treatment. Option C is irrelevant as OTC supplements are not typically related to these symptoms. Option D is incorrect as discontinuing medication without proper evaluation and management of side effects can worsen the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because verbalizing a desire to end their life and giving away possessions are clear indicators of suicidal ideation and planning. This behavior demonstrates a serious intent to harm oneself. Expressing frustration (choice B) is a common emotion and does not necessarily indicate suicidal risk. Appearing sad and withdrawn (choice C) without any statements about harm may suggest depression but not necessarily suicide risk. Not wanting to participate in group activities (choice D) without a specific reason could be due to various factors and does not directly correlate with suicidal behavior.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Administering prescribed antipsychotic medications) Rationale: 1. Priority is to address the patient's symptoms effectively. 2. Antipsychotic medications are essential in managing schizophrenia. 3. Medication adherence is crucial to prevent symptom exacerbation. 4. Stabilizing the patient's condition is necessary for overall care. Summary: - Choice A: Emotional support is important but not the priority. - Choice B: Socialization can be beneficial, but symptom management is crucial. - Choice C: ADLs are important but not as critical as medication administration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is providing a calm, structured environment (Choice A). This is because individuals in the manic phase may exhibit high energy levels, impulsivity, and agitation. A calm environment can help reduce stimulation and promote a sense of stability. Structured routines can also help manage erratic behavior and provide a sense of predictability. Choice B is incorrect because group settings may exacerbate the patient's symptoms due to increased stimulation. Choice C is inappropriate as excessive stimulation can worsen agitation and may lead to further escalation of manic symptoms. Choice D is not ideal as encouraging a nap may not address the underlying issues of mania and may not be effective in managing the symptoms associated with the manic phase.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because grief can indeed manifest in emotional, physical, and psychological symptoms. This understanding shows awareness of the complex and multifaceted nature of grief, acknowledging that it goes beyond just emotional pain. Choice A is incorrect as grief is not a linear process for everyone; it can be unique and non-linear. Choice C is incorrect as grief is a complex process that cannot be quickly resolved through positive thinking alone. Choice D is incorrect because grief can deeply impact not only the individual but also their family members, highlighting the interconnectedness of emotions within a family unit.