A patient who previously reported feeling better on the current drug regimen suddenly reports that the drug seems to have stopped working. This is known as:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachyphylaxis. Tachyphylaxis refers to a rapid decrease in response to a drug after repeated administration. In this case, the patient initially felt better on the drug regimen but now feels it has stopped working, indicating a sudden loss of effectiveness. Incorrect Choices: B: Side effect - Side effects are unintended, secondary effects of a drug that can occur at therapeutic doses, not related to a sudden loss of efficacy. C: Adverse effect - Adverse effects are harmful or undesired effects that may occur with a drug but do not necessarily mean the drug has stopped working. D: Tolerance - Tolerance is a gradual decrease in response to a drug with repeated use, not a sudden loss of effectiveness as described in the scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administration. Pharmacokinetics involves the processes of Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion (ADME). Administration refers to the act of giving a drug to a patient, which is not a process that occurs within the body. Absorption involves the movement of the drug into the bloodstream, Distribution is the movement of the drug throughout the body, and Excretion is the removal of the drug from the body. Therefore, Administration is not one of the four processes of pharmacokinetics.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because pain management is an essential part of treating acute otitis media, along with antibiotics if necessary. Step 1: Addressing pain helps improve the patient's comfort and quality of life. Step 2: Pain management can include over-the-counter pain relievers or ear drops. Step 3: Antibiotics are not always needed, especially in mild cases or when the infection is viral. Summary: Option A is incorrect as pain management is beneficial regardless of antibiotics. Option B is incorrect as antibiotics are not always the sole treatment. Option C is incorrect as pain management can be used even without a burst tympanic membrane.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium channel blockers. They are commonly indicated for managing gestational hypertension due to their ability to relax blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. Spironolactone (A) is a potassium-sparing diuretic not typically used in pregnancy. Loop diuretics (B) are not recommended in pregnancy due to potential risks. Choice D is incomplete.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis due to its efficacy against the causative bacteria. It specifically targets anaerobic bacteria commonly found in the vaginal flora. Azithromycin (B) is used to treat respiratory infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Amoxicillin (C) is an antibiotic for different types of infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Ciprofloxacin (D) is more commonly used for urinary tract infections. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for treating bacterial vaginosis in this scenario.