A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoxemia and compensated respiratory acidosis. The patient's pH is within normal range (7.35), indicating compensation. The elevated PaCO2 (55 mm Hg) indicates respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation, likely from COPD. The low PaO2 (65 mm Hg) indicates hypoxemia, common in pneumonia. The normal bicarbonate level (30 mEq/L) suggests metabolic compensation for respiratory acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as there is no metabolic alkalosis present. Choice C is incorrect as the patient has hypoxemia. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is showing compensated respiratory acidosis, not uncompensated.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because informed consent requires the patient to have knowledge and competence to make a decision. This involves understanding the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the proposed treatment. Choice A is incorrect as it pertains to a physical ability unrelated to decision-making. Choice C is incorrect as consent must be verbal or written, not just nodding. Choice D is incorrect as consent can be obtained in various ways, not specifically through reading and writing in English.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: notify the provider immediately. The absence of bruit, thrill, and palpable distal pulses in a new arteriovenous fistula suggests potential complications like thrombosis or stenosis, requiring urgent intervention. Notifying the provider promptly allows for timely assessment and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Summary: A: Reassessing the patient in an hour may delay necessary intervention for a potentially serious issue. B: Raising the arm above the level of the patient’s heart does not address the underlying problem and may not improve the situation. D: Applying warm packs to the fistula site is not the appropriate intervention for the absence of bruit and thrill and may not address the underlying cause.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates effective handoff communication by involving key stakeholders (nephrology consultant physician), requesting specific patient updates, and collaborating on patient care tasks (placing a central line). This scenario promotes continuity of care and ensures important information is shared. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: High noise level disrupts communication and can lead to errors or omissions in handoff information. C: While using a standardized checklist can be beneficial, it alone does not guarantee effective communication if not utilized properly or if key information is missed. D: Conducting reports at the patient's bedside is beneficial for patient involvement but may not address the need for involving relevant healthcare providers like the consultant physician in the handoff process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (B - Brain death determination is required before organs can be retrieved for transplant): 1. Brain death determination is a medical necessity to ensure the organs are viable for transplant. 2. Organs must be retrieved promptly after brain death to maintain their functionality. 3. Brain death criteria ensure that the donor is truly deceased before organ retrieval. Summary of Why Other Choices are Incorrect: A: While discussing organ donation is important, comfort level is not the main factor in organ shortage awareness. C: Donation after cardiac death is ethically acceptable, but it is not directly related to the need for brain death determination. D: Withdrawing life support solely to become an organ donor is ethically questionable and not a necessary step in organ donation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about normal grieving. This is because the patient is expressing uncertainty and seeking validation for their feelings, indicating a lack of understanding about the grieving process. Choice A is incorrect as hopelessness typically involves feelings of despair and loss of motivation, which are not explicitly stated by the patient. Choice B is incorrect as complicated grieving involves specific unresolved issues related to the loss, which the patient did not mention. Choice D is incorrect as chronic sorrow is typically associated with ongoing feelings of sadness and longing, which are not explicitly expressed by the patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids. Bronchodilators help to quickly open up the airways during an asthma exacerbation, providing immediate relief. Intravenous corticosteroids help reduce airway inflammation and prevent further worsening of symptoms. Corticosteroids by mouth (Choice A) are not as effective as intravenous administration during an acute exacerbation. Prone positioning or continuous lateral rotation (Choice C) is not a recommended treatment for asthma exacerbation. Sedation and inhaled bronchodilators (Choice D) are not appropriate as sedation can depress respiratory function and worsen the condition.