ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
Question 2 of 9
An intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min. In cardiogenic shock, the primary goal of using an IABP is to improve cardiac output to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. A cardiac output of 5 L/min indicates adequate blood flow and perfusion. Choice A is incorrect as urine output is not a direct indicator of cardiac function. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 110 beats/minute alone does not provide information on the effectiveness of the IABP in improving cardiac output. Choice D is incorrect as stroke volume alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall cardiac function.
Question 3 of 9
The critical care environment is stressful to the patient. Which interventions assist in reducing this stress? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep-wake cycles. Rationale: 1. Adjusting lighting can help regulate the patient's circadian rhythm, promoting better sleep and reducing stress. 2. Normal sleep-wake cycles are crucial for overall well-being and healing in a critical care setting. 3. Proper lighting can also create a more calming environment for the patient. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Providing clocks, calendars, and personal photos can be overwhelming for a stressed patient. C. Talking about other patients may increase anxiety and breach patient confidentiality. D. Telling the day and time of routine interventions may disrupt the patient's sense of time and add to stress.
Question 4 of 9
Which scenarios contribute to effective handoff communicaabitribo.cno ma/tte csth ange of shift? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates effective handoff communication by involving key stakeholders (nephrology consultant physician), requesting specific patient updates, and collaborating on patient care tasks (placing a central line). This scenario promotes continuity of care and ensures important information is shared. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: High noise level disrupts communication and can lead to errors or omissions in handoff information. C: While using a standardized checklist can be beneficial, it alone does not guarantee effective communication if not utilized properly or if key information is missed. D: Conducting reports at the patient's bedside is beneficial for patient involvement but may not address the need for involving relevant healthcare providers like the consultant physician in the handoff process.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is educating a patient’s family member about a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC). Which statement by the family member best indicates undaebrisrbt.acnomd/itnesgt of the purpose of the PAC?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it shows understanding that the PAC helps in managing fluid therapy effectively. The PAC measures pressures in the heart and lungs, guiding fluid management. Choice A is incorrect as the PAC is not primarily for IV fluid administration. Choice C shows understanding of the catheter placement but not its purpose. Choice D is incorrect as the PAC is not for the heart to heal but to monitor cardiac status.
Question 6 of 9
What is the treatment for an acute exacerbation of asthma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids. Bronchodilators help to quickly open up the airways during an asthma exacerbation, providing immediate relief. Intravenous corticosteroids help reduce airway inflammation and prevent further worsening of symptoms. Corticosteroids by mouth (Choice A) are not as effective as intravenous administration during an acute exacerbation. Prone positioning or continuous lateral rotation (Choice C) is not a recommended treatment for asthma exacerbation. Sedation and inhaled bronchodilators (Choice D) are not appropriate as sedation can depress respiratory function and worsen the condition.
Question 7 of 9
A 65-year-old patient admitted to the progressive care unit with a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia, has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and diabetes. A set of arterial blood gases obtained on admissiaobnir bw.coitmh/oteustt supplemental oxygen shows pH 7.35; PaCO 55 mm Hg; bicarbonate 30 mEq/L ; PaO 65 mm Hg. These blood 2 2 gases reflect what condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoxemia and compensated respiratory acidosis. The patient's pH is within normal range (7.35), indicating compensation. The elevated PaCO2 (55 mm Hg) indicates respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation, likely from COPD. The low PaO2 (65 mm Hg) indicates hypoxemia, common in pneumonia. The normal bicarbonate level (30 mEq/L) suggests metabolic compensation for respiratory acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as there is no metabolic alkalosis present. Choice C is incorrect as the patient has hypoxemia. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is showing compensated respiratory acidosis, not uncompensated.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is concerned about the risk of alcohol withdraw al syndrome in a 45-year-old postoperative patient. Which statement indicates an unders tanding of management of this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because initiating the alcohol withdrawal protocol shows an understanding of managing a patient at risk for alcohol withdrawal syndrome. This protocol involves carefully monitoring the patient's symptoms, providing appropriate medications, and ensuring a safe environment. Option A is incorrect as it downplays the seriousness of alcohol withdrawal. Option B is incorrect as there are assessment tools available for identifying alcohol withdrawal. Option C is incorrect as pain management should be tailored to the individual's needs, not necessarily lessened due to alcohol withdrawal risk.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate: A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock. B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion. C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.