A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patient's needs for physical activity?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assisting the patient to a chair during awake times allows for gradual physical activity, promoting mobility without overwhelming the patient. This option supports the patient's need for movement while considering their current level of fatigue. A is incorrect because educating the patient about the benefits of exercise may not be feasible or appropriate given the patient's current fatigue levels. C is incorrect as stair exercises may be too strenuous for a patient experiencing debilitating fatigue, potentially leading to further exhaustion and risk of injury. D is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing exercises primarily focus on respiratory health and may not directly address the patient's need for physical activity to combat fatigue.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombocytopenia. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, monitoring for thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is crucial to assess the drug's effectiveness and potential side effects. Hyperuricemia (A) is not directly associated with clopidogrel use. Hyponatremia (B) is not a common adverse reaction of clopidogrel. Lymphocytopenia (C) is not typically linked to clopidogrel and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Filgrastim stimulates the production of neutrophils. 2. An enlarged spleen can indicate an increase in neutrophils. 3. Therefore, assessing the client for an enlarged spleen is crucial to monitor the drug's effectiveness and potential adverse effects. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Dusky nail beds - Not directly related to filgrastim or neutropenia. B: Petechiae - Typically associated with low platelet count, not neutrophil increase. D: Swollen calf - Unlikely to be a direct adverse effect of filgrastim for neutropenia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets. Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, specifically COX-1, in platelets, leading to the inhibition of thromboxane A2 production. Thromboxane A2 is a potent platelet aggregator. By inhibiting its production, aspirin reduces platelet aggregation, thus reducing the risk of cardiovascular events. A: Activating thromboxane A2 - This is incorrect because aspirin actually inhibits the production of thromboxane A2. B: Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists - This is incorrect because aspirin primarily works through the inhibition of cyclooxygenase, not adenosine diphosphate receptors. C: Suppressing specific clotting factors - This is incorrect because aspirin's primary mechanism of action is through platelet inhibition, not through suppressing clotting factors.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with this type of anemia due to increased blood volume and iron demands. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is typically microcytic hypochromic. Primaquine (choice B) is not known to cause normocytic normochromic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) results in hemolytic anemia with abnormal red blood cell morphology. Thus, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the characteristics of normocytic normochromic anemia.