ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg daily has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5. It is time to administer the next dose of Coumadin. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer the daily Coumadin as ordered. Rationale: 1. INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range (2-3) for patients on warfarin. 2. Holding the dose may lead to fluctuation in INR and risk of thrombosis or bleeding. 3. Notifying the physician is not necessary as the INR is within the target range. 4. Administering vitamin K is not indicated unless the patient is experiencing significant bleeding. In summary, administering the daily Coumadin as ordered is appropriate as the INR is within the therapeutic range, ensuring continuity of anticoagulation therapy without unnecessary intervention.
Question 2 of 5
A patient reports severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Assessment reveals a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) and pulse of 82 beats/min. Results of a complete blood count reveal lower than normal segmented and banded neutrophils and higher than normal lymphocytes. Which type of infection does the nurse suspect this patient is most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Viral. The patient's symptoms of abdominal cramping, diarrhea, fever, and altered white blood cell count with low neutrophils and high lymphocytes suggest a viral infection. Viral infections often present with these symptoms and characteristic lab findings. Other choices are incorrect because fungal infections typically do not cause acute abdominal symptoms, parasitic infections usually present with different symptoms and lab findings, and bacterial infections are more likely to have elevated neutrophils and different clinical presentation.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following an automobile accident. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Patient's immune system is compromised post-splenectomy. Step 2: Washing hands and avoiding ill individuals reduce infection risk. Step 3: Emphasizing infection prevention crucial for patient safety. Summary: A - relates to clotting issues, B - not relevant, C - not immediate concern. Washing hands is most pertinent.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes an aPTT level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An aPTT level of 28 seconds indicates a shorter clotting time than normal, suggesting that the patient may be at risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation with heparin. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider to adjust the heparin dosage to prevent bleeding complications. A: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication and does not affect aPTT levels. C: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist and primarily affects the PT/INR levels, not aPTT. D: Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production and does not affect clotting parameters such as aPTT.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What action is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. This is because pallor, which is paleness of the skin, can be difficult to detect on dark skin. The conjunctiva of the eye is a mucous membrane that is not pigmented and can provide a more accurate indication of pallor. Options B, C, and D are not ideal for assessing pallor in a dark-skinned client as they may not show paleness accurately. B is more related to checking for pallor in fair-skinned individuals. C and D are not reliable indicators of pallor in any skin type.