A patient who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for tuberculosis calls the clinic and reports having orange discolored urine and tears. Which response by the nurse reflects accurate knowledge about the medication and the patient’s illness?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because orange discoloration of urine and tears is a known side effect of rifampin. This is due to the drug's ability to color bodily fluids. It is important for the nurse to reassure the patient that this is a normal and expected reaction to the medication. Option A is incorrect as it pertains to visual changes in red-green color discrimination, which is not a common side effect of rifampin. Option B is also incorrect as it relates to symptoms such as shortness of breath, hives, or itching, which are not typically associated with rifampin use. Option D is incorrect because stopping the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can lead to treatment failure and potential drug resistance. It is important for the patient to continue taking the medication as prescribed and to report any concerns or side effects to the healthcare provider for proper management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange. This is the priority patient problem because the patient's low O2 saturation of 88% indicates inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, which can lead to hypoxia and further complications. The patient's symptoms of pneumonia, fever, and weakness also support this priority as they contribute to impaired gas exchange. A: Fatigue is a common symptom in pneumonia but is secondary to impaired gas exchange in this case. B: Hyperthermia is important to address but is not the priority over impaired gas exchange affecting oxygenation. C: Impaired mobility is a concern, but it is not as critical as addressing impaired gas exchange to ensure adequate oxygenation for the patient's recovery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A sore that will not heal. This is because one of the seven warning signs of cancer according to the American Cancer Society is the presence of a sore that does not heal. This can be a potential indicator of skin cancer or other types of cancer. The other choices, B: Alopecia, C: Abscess, and D: Anorexia, do not directly relate to the warning signs of cancer as outlined by the ACS. Alopecia refers to hair loss, abscess is a localized collection of pus, and anorexia is a loss of appetite. These symptoms are not typically included in the list of warning signs of cancer and therefore are not represented by the A in the CAUTION acronym.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases coronary artery spasms. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing and dilating coronary arteries, thereby reducing spasms in Prinzmetal's angina. This action helps to improve blood flow to the heart muscle and alleviate chest pain. Choice A is incorrect because diltiazem does not directly reduce heart palpitations. Choice B is incorrect because diltiazem does not prevent coronary artery plaque buildup. Choice D is incorrect because diltiazem does not increase the contractile force of the heart; in fact, it may actually decrease contractility due to its negative inotropic effects. In summary, the accurate action of diltiazem in the context of Prinzmetal's angina is to decrease coronary artery spasms, which improves blood flow to the heart and relieves chest pain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking the long-acting beta2 agonist every morning helps prevent acute asthma attacks by providing sustained bronchodilation. Choice A is incorrect as long-acting medications are not for immediate relief. Choice B is incorrect because it indicates using the medication only during an attack. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping long-acting beta2 agonists can lead to worsening asthma symptoms.