ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.
Question 2 of 5
A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with lung cancer experiencing dyspnea is to provide supplemental oxygen therapy. This intervention helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. Administering a cough suppressant (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dyspnea and can potentially depress the respiratory drive. Encouraging the client to lie flat (Choice B) can worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial in some situations, but when a client is experiencing dyspnea due to lung cancer, supplemental oxygen therapy is the priority to improve oxygen levels and alleviate breathing difficulty.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.
Question 5 of 5
After a patient is exposed to a specific antigen, B cells will differentiate into:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After exposure to a specific antigen, B cells undergo differentiation into plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies in response to the antigen. Choice A ('B cytotoxic cells') is incorrect because B cells do not differentiate into cytotoxic cells; cytotoxic cells are typically associated with T cells. Choice C ('Bursal cells') is incorrect as bursal cells are specific to birds and not relevant to human immune responses. Choice D ('Clonal equivalents') is incorrect as it does not describe the differentiation process of B cells exposed to antigens.