ATI RN
Introduction to Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who is taking clopidogrel (Plavix) and aspirin is preparing for orthopedic surgery. The nurse will consult with the surgeon and provide which instruction to the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to the patient who is taking clopidogrel (Plavix) and aspirin and is preparing for orthopedic surgery is to continue taking aspirin and stop taking clopidogrel 2 weeks prior to surgery. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that irreversibly inhibits platelet activation and aggregation, which can increase the risk of bleeding during surgery. However, aspirin has a different mechanism of action and does not have as profound an effect on platelet function as clopidogrel. By continuing aspirin and stopping clopidogrel, the patient can still receive some antiplatelet protection while minimizing the bleeding risk associated with clopidogrel. It is important for the nurse to consult with the surgeon to ensure the best course of action for the patient's specific situation.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is determining a patient's gastric residual before administering an enteral feeding; the last feeding was 240 mL. The patient will be discharged on enteral feedings. It is important to include in the teaching plan that a residual of more than which amount would indicate delayed gastric emptying (based on the last feeding)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
Anticipatory nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy occurs:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Anticipatory nausea and vomiting occur before chemotherapy administration and are a conditioned response to previous chemotherapy experiences. This psychological response is triggered by cues such as the sight or smell of the treatment environment. It is distinct from acute or delayed nausea and vomiting, which occur during or after chemotherapy. Anticipatory nausea and vomiting can be challenging to manage and often require behavioral interventions or anti-anxiety medications.
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate therapy for the control of preeclampsia. A nurse discovers that the client is encountering toxicity from the medication in which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity can cause respiratory depression, which is indicated by a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute or less. This is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention. Deep tendon reflexes are typically absent in severe toxicity, not present. A urine output of 25 ml/hr may indicate renal impairment but is not specific to magnesium toxicity. A serum magnesium level of 7 mEq/L is elevated but does not alone confirm toxicity without clinical symptoms. Therefore, respiratory depression is the key indicator.
Question 5 of 5
A 20-year-old woman who is 15 weeks pregnant is admitted feverish and dehydrated with acute severe asthma associated with a community-acquired pneumonia. She has a history of angioedema following a cephalosporin. Which of the following is not appropriate therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute asthma and pneumonia in pregnancy require urgent care. IV crystalloids rehydrate, safe and necessary. High FiO2 (40%) supports oxygenation in asthma/pneumonia, appropriate. Nebulized salbutamol, a beta-agonist, relieves bronchospasm, standard and safe. IV hydrocortisone reduces inflammation, suitable. IV gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, treats pneumonia but is inappropriate due to cephalosporin cross-reactivity risk (angioedema history) and fetal ototoxicity concerns, making it unsafe here. Alternative antibiotics (e.g., macrolides) are preferred, prioritizing maternal and fetal safety.