ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Book Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who is taking aspirin for arthritis pain asks the nurse why it also causes gastrointestinal upset. The nurse understands that this is because aspirin:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin works by inhibiting both cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) enzymes. COX-1 is responsible for producing prostaglandins that help maintain the stomach lining, promote blood clotting, and support kidney function. When COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin, it interferes with the protective mechanisms of the stomach lining, leading to increased risk of gastrointestinal irritation, ulcers, and bleeding. This is why aspirin is known to cause gastrointestinal upset, including symptoms like stomach pain, heartburn, nausea, and even ulcers in some cases.
Question 2 of 9
An intrinsic activity of < 1 is exhibited by.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An intrinsic activity of < 1 is exhibited by a partial agonist. Intrinsic activity, also known as efficacy, refers to the ability of a drug to activate a receptor upon binding. A partial agonist has lower intrinsic activity compared to a full agonist. It is able to activate the receptor, but to a lesser extent, often resulting in a submaximal response even when all receptors are occupied. This characteristic of partial agonists makes them important in pharmacology for providing a more controlled and graded response compared to full agonists.
Question 3 of 9
What patient history would the nurse recognize as a contraindication for beginning Niacin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gout is a contraindication for beginning Niacin therapy due to its potential to exacerbate gout symptoms. Niacin can lead to hyperuricemia, which is increased uric acid levels in the blood, and that can trigger a gout attack. Patients with a history of gout should avoid Niacin therapy to prevent worsening of their condition.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is compiling a drug history for a patient. Which question from the nurse will obtain the most information from the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A comprehensive drug history includes information about the patient's current and past medication use, including over-the-counter drugs, herbal supplements, and non-pharmacological pain relief methods. Asking, 'When you have pain, what do you do to relieve it?' provides insight into the patient's self-management strategies and helps identify potential drug interactions or misuse. While questions about sleeping pills, family history, and childhood diseases are relevant, they do not provide as much information about the patient's current medication practices. Therefore, focusing on pain relief methods is the most effective way to gather a detailed drug history.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been ordered the powdered form of the bile acid sequestrant colestipol. Which of the following does the nurse identify as true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the colestipol should be administered 1 hour before or 4 to 6 hours after any other oral medication. Bile acid sequestrants like colestipol can bind to other medications, reducing their absorption and effectiveness. Therefore, they should be taken separately from other medications to prevent any interactions. Additionally, colestipol should ideally be administered with meals to improve tolerability and adherence, although this was not one of the options given in the question.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse teaches the client about the difference between oral and nasal decongestants. The nurse evaluates that learning has been effective when the client makes which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oral decongestants (e.g., pseudoephedrine) act systemically, raising blood pressure via vasoconstriction, a key difference from nasal decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline), which act locally but risk rebound congestion. The statement 'Oral decongestants can cause hypertension' shows the client grasps this systemic effect, indicating effective teaching. Nasal decongestants aren't safe for a month ; they cause rebound after 3-5 days. Only nasal decongestants typically cause rebound , not oral. Oral efficacy varies, not inherently superior. Choice A reflects accurate understanding of oral decongestants' broader impact, critical for safe use, making it the best learning indicator.
Question 7 of 9
How would you teach a patient how to prep an inhaler?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching a patient how to prepare an inhaler is an important step in proper medication administration. Shaking the inhaler for about 5 seconds before use helps to ensure that the medication is properly mixed and dispersed. This is especially important for metered-dose inhalers where the medication is dispersed as a fine spray. Priming the inhaler by shaking it helps ensure that the patient receives the correct dose of medication with each use.
Question 8 of 9
A 21-year-old male college student presents to the emergency department with hives over his chest and arms. The history and physical exam reveals that he used a new laundry detergent and he was having an allergic reaction. The physician wants to prescribe an antihistamine that will not sedate the patient because he has to study for a test. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Allergic hives from detergent need a non-sedating antihistamine. Fexofenadine -blocks H1 receptors without drowsiness, ideal for studying. Chlorpheniramine , dimenhydrinate , and diphenhydramine sedate. Ipratropium (E) is irrelevant. Fexofenadine ensures efficacy and alertness.
Question 9 of 9
Tricyclic antidepressants:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) like amitriptyline have a high volume of distribution due to lipophilicity, not low, making that false. They're not useful in urinary retention (they cause it as a side effect) but are effective for chronic pain via monoamine modulation, so that's partially false. They can prolong the QT interval by blocking cardiac sodium channels, a true statement and significant risk factor for arrhythmias. They don't block monoamine oxidase (MAO) but inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, increasing synaptic levels, so that's false. They treat severe depression, even with suicidal ideation, though caution is needed. The QT prolongation is a critical electrophysiological effect, requiring ECG monitoring in clinical use to prevent torsades de pointes.