ATI RN
The Hematologic System ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who is suspected of having acute viral hemorrhagic fever reveals history of tick bite. Which of the following is the most possible causative agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Crimean Congo virus. This is because Crimean Congo virus is a tick-borne virus known to cause acute viral hemorrhagic fever. Tick bite history increases suspicion for this virus. A: Hantavirus is transmitted through rodent feces and urine. B: Rift Valley virus is transmitted through mosquito bites. D: Marburg virus is transmitted through contact with infected animals.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is not the criteria in the international prognostic index for non Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lymphocyte count. In the International Prognostic Index for Non Hodgkin's Lymphoma, the criteria are based on the number of extranodal sites, LDH level, and performance status. Lymphocyte count is not included in the IPI criteria because it does not play a significant role in predicting the prognosis of Non Hodgkin's Lymphoma. Lymphocyte count is not a commonly used parameter in prognostic scoring systems for this type of cancer. Therefore, the absence of lymphocyte count as a criteria in the IPI is justified.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who is infected with hookworms produces signs and symptoms of anemia. Which of the following can be seen in the peripheral blood smear of the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basophilic stippling. Hookworm infection can lead to anemia due to chronic blood loss. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic finding in the peripheral blood smear of patients with iron deficiency anemia, which can result from hookworm infection. Basophilic stippling represents the aggregation of ribosomes and is seen in erythrocytes that contain denatured ribosomal RNA. Howell-Jolly bodies are remnants of nuclear material and are typically seen in patients with functional asplenia. Target cells are seen in conditions like liver disease or hemoglobinopathies. Spherocytes are seen in immune hemolytic anemias.
Question 4 of 5
A 50-year-old male who had frequent infections of his upper respiratory tract manifested with subcutaneous petechiae over his arms and legs. Investigations revealed low hemoglobin and a dry tap marrow. The most likely condition the patient is suffering from
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia, which includes low hemoglobin levels leading to anemia. The dry tap marrow indicates bone marrow failure, which is a hallmark of aplastic anemia. The subcutaneous petechiae are due to thrombocytopenia, another feature of this condition. Iron deficiency anemia (A) typically presents with microcytic hypochromic red blood cells and is not associated with bone marrow failure. Megaloblastic anemia (B) is characterized by macrocytic red blood cells and is usually due to deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate. Hemolytic anemia (C) involves the premature destruction of red blood cells and is not typically associated with bone marrow failure.
Question 5 of 5
RBCs break into fragments, they are referred to as schistocytes. These type of cells are seen in
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Schistocytes are fragmented red blood cells caused by mechanical damage as they pass through narrowed vessels. This occurs in conditions like thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemolytic uremic syndrome, which are types of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell trait (A) and Thalassemia (B) are genetic disorders affecting red blood cell structure and production, not causing mechanical fragmentation. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (D) is a disorder characterized by low platelet count, unrelated to RBC fragmentation.