ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who is receiving care for osteosarcoma has been experiencing severe pain since being diagnosed. As a result, the patient has been receiving analgesics on both a scheduled and PRN basis. For the past several hours, however, the patients level of consciousness has declined and she is now unresponsive. How should the patients pain control regimen be affected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a patient's level of consciousness declines and becomes unresponsive, it may indicate a potential overdose of analgesics. To ensure patient safety, IV analgesics should be withheld and replaced with transdermal analgesics, which provide a more controlled and gradual release of medication. This switch helps prevent further overdose and adverse effects. Continuing the current pain control regimen (Choice A) may worsen the situation. Placing the pain control regimen on hold (Choice B) may lead to inadequate pain management. Reducing analgesic dosages (Choice D) may not be sufficient in addressing the overdose issue.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is addressing condom use in the context of a health promotion workshop. When discussing the correct use of condoms, what should the nurse tell the attendees?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hold the condom by the cuff upon withdrawal. This is important because holding the condom by the cuff helps prevent any potential spillage of bodily fluids. During withdrawal, holding the condom by the base prevents it from slipping off and minimizes the risk of exposure to sexually transmitted infections. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Attaching the condom prior to erection is incorrect as it may lead to breakage or slipping off during intercourse. B: Reusing a condom with the same partner is highly discouraged due to the risk of breakage, reduced effectiveness, and potential exposure to infections. C: Using skin lotion as a lubricant is not recommended as it can degrade the condom material, increasing the risk of breakage.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is sitting at the patient’s bedside takinga nursing history. Which zone of personal space is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse sitting at the patient's bedside is using the personal zone of personal space, which ranges from 18 inches to 4 feet. This distance allows for a close interaction suitable for taking a nursing history while maintaining a professional yet personal connection. The socio-consultative zone (A) is 4-12 feet, more appropriate for professional interactions. The intimate zone (C) is 0-18 inches, too close for an initial nursing history. The public zone (D) is 12 feet or more, too distant for a personal conversation.
Question 4 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 5 of 9
The nurse should recognize the greatest risk for the development of blindness in which of the following patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because macular degeneration is a leading cause of blindness in older adults. The macula is responsible for central vision, crucial for tasks like reading and driving. Macular degeneration can lead to permanent vision loss if not managed promptly. The other choices are less likely to result in blindness: astigmatism, hyperopia, and myopia are refractive errors that can be corrected with glasses or contacts, and they do not typically lead to blindness. The age and condition of the patient are important factors in determining the risk of blindness.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has just returned to the postsurgical unit from post-anesthetic recovery after breast surgery for removal of a malignancy. What is the most likely major nursing diagnosis to include in this patients immediate plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute pain related to tissue manipulation and incision. This is the most likely major nursing diagnosis because post-surgical pain is a common and expected occurrence after breast surgery. The patient is likely to experience pain due to tissue manipulation and incision during the surgery. Addressing acute pain is crucial for the patient's comfort, well-being, and overall recovery. Choice B (Ineffective coping related to surgery) may be a secondary nursing diagnosis, but acute pain takes priority as it directly impacts the patient's immediate comfort and recovery. Choice C (Risk for trauma related to post-surgical injury) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis since the patient has already undergone surgery and is not at risk for further injury at this point. Choice D (Chronic sorrow related to change in body image) is not the most immediate concern post-surgery; addressing acute pain is more critical.
Question 7 of 9
A patients decline in respiratory and renal function has been attributed to Goodpasture syndrome, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. What pathologic process underlies the patients health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Goodpasture syndrome, the patient's immune system mistakenly targets normal constituents of the body, specifically the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This autoimmune response leads to inflammation and damage in these organs, resulting in respiratory and renal dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as immune complexes are not the primary mechanism in Goodpasture syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to T cell-mediated immune responses, which are not the main drivers in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as histamine release and cell lysis are not the main processes involved in Goodpasture syndrome.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Erectile dysfunction can be caused by organic factors, such as diabetes, which affects blood flow and nerve function. Diabetes can lead to damage of blood vessels and nerves, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. Testosterone deficiency (choice B) can also contribute to erectile dysfunction, but it is not an organic cause. Anxiety (choice C) and depression (choice D) are psychological factors that can lead to erectile dysfunction, not organic causes. Parkinsonism (choice E) can affect sexual function, but it is not a common organic cause of erectile dysfunction.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching a patient preventative measures regarding vaginal infections. The nurse should include which of the following as an important risk factor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Frequent douching. Douching disrupts the natural balance of vaginal flora, making the environment more susceptible to infections. High estrogen levels (A) can actually protect against vaginal infections. Late menarche (B) and nonpregnant state (C) are not direct risk factors for vaginal infections. In summary, frequent douching is the most significant risk factor as it disrupts the vaginal microbiome.