ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who is receiving care for osteosarcoma has been experiencing severe pain since being diagnosed. As a result, the patient has been receiving analgesics on both a scheduled and PRN basis. For the past several hours, however, the patients level of consciousness has declined and she is now unresponsive. How should the patients pain control regimen be affected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a patient's level of consciousness declines and becomes unresponsive, it may indicate a potential overdose of analgesics. To ensure patient safety, IV analgesics should be withheld and replaced with transdermal analgesics, which provide a more controlled and gradual release of medication. This switch helps prevent further overdose and adverse effects. Continuing the current pain control regimen (Choice A) may worsen the situation. Placing the pain control regimen on hold (Choice B) may lead to inadequate pain management. Reducing analgesic dosages (Choice D) may not be sufficient in addressing the overdose issue.
Question 2 of 9
A patients primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the patients immune response. This physiologic state is known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Viral set point. The viral set point refers to the stable level of HIV in the body after the initial infection. This state indicates a balance between viral replication and the immune response. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Static stage implies no change, which is not the case with HIV levels fluctuating; B) Latent stage refers to a period of inactivity, not the stable state described; D) Window period is the time between infection and detectable antibodies, not the equilibrium state described.
Question 3 of 9
The organization of a patients care on the palliative care unit is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interdisciplinary collaboration involves clinicians from different backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care, ensuring a holistic approach to patient care. This fosters a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and individualized care. In contrast, multidisciplinary practice involves clinicians working independently without integrating their plans, potentially leading to fragmented care. Choice A is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration does have a team leader to coordinate and facilitate communication among team members. Choice C is incorrect because while communication and cooperation are essential in interdisciplinary collaboration, the key distinction is the integration of different perspectives and plans of care. Choice D is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration goes beyond just medical expertise and patient preference, involving professionals from various disciplines working together to address all aspects of patient care.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has just returned to the postsurgical unit from post-anesthetic recovery after breast surgery for removal of a malignancy. What is the most likely major nursing diagnosis to include in this patients immediate plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute pain related to tissue manipulation and incision. This is the most likely major nursing diagnosis because post-surgical pain is a common and expected occurrence after breast surgery. The patient is likely to experience pain due to tissue manipulation and incision during the surgery. Addressing acute pain is crucial for the patient's comfort, well-being, and overall recovery. Choice B (Ineffective coping related to surgery) may be a secondary nursing diagnosis, but acute pain takes priority as it directly impacts the patient's immediate comfort and recovery. Choice C (Risk for trauma related to post-surgical injury) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis since the patient has already undergone surgery and is not at risk for further injury at this point. Choice D (Chronic sorrow related to change in body image) is not the most immediate concern post-surgery; addressing acute pain is more critical.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is scheduled for enucleation and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about postoperative care. What aspects of care should the nurse describe to the patient? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Application of topical antibiotic ointment. After enucleation, there is a risk of infection at the surgical site. By applying topical antibiotic ointment as directed, the patient can help prevent infection and promote healing. This is a crucial aspect of postoperative care. B: Maintenance of a supine position for the first 48 hours postoperative is incorrect. Patients may be advised to avoid lying flat on their back to prevent complications such as pressure on the surgical site. C: Fluid restriction to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Fluid restriction is not typically necessary post-enucleation unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. D: Administration of loop diuretics to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Loop diuretics are not typically used for preventing orbital edema post-enucleation. E: Use of an ocular pressure dressing is incorrect. While dressings may be used postoperatively, the application of topical antibiotic ointment is more
Question 6 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with HIV has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilize a pressure-reducing mattress. This intervention is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers in patients at risk for impaired skin integrity, such as those with HIV. By redistributing pressure, a pressure-reducing mattress helps to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Limiting physical activity (B) can lead to muscle atrophy and worsen skin integrity. Applying antibiotic ointment (C) may not address the root cause of skin breakdown. Avoiding synthetic fabrics (D) may be helpful in some cases, but it is not as effective as using a pressure-reducing mattress.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after mastoid surgery. What topic should the nurse address in the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: After mastoid surgery, patients may experience pain and dizziness, hence addressing the safe use of analgesics and antivertiginous agents is crucial for symptom management. Step 2: Analgesics help in managing post-operative pain, while antivertiginous agents help control dizziness, reducing the risk of falls. Step 3: Educating the patient on safe use ensures proper pain and symptom management, preventing complications. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address immediate post-operative care needs such as pain and dizziness management.
Question 9 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.