ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who is receiving care for osteosarcoma has been experiencing severe pain since being diagnosed. As a result, the patient has been receiving analgesics on both a scheduled and PRN basis. For the past several hours, however, the patients level of consciousness has declined and she is now unresponsive. How should the patients pain control regimen be affected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a patient's level of consciousness declines and becomes unresponsive, it may indicate a potential overdose of analgesics. To ensure patient safety, IV analgesics should be withheld and replaced with transdermal analgesics, which provide a more controlled and gradual release of medication. This switch helps prevent further overdose and adverse effects. Continuing the current pain control regimen (Choice A) may worsen the situation. Placing the pain control regimen on hold (Choice B) may lead to inadequate pain management. Reducing analgesic dosages (Choice D) may not be sufficient in addressing the overdose issue.
Question 2 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 3 of 9
A nurse completes a nursing history form when a patient is admitted to a nursing unit, not when the patient is discharged. SOAP notes are not given to patients who are being discharged. SOAP notes are a type of documentation style. A home health nurse is preparing for an initialhome visit. Which information should be included in the patient’s home care medical record?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reports to third-party payers. In home health care, it is essential to document and report patient care to third-party payers for reimbursement purposes. This includes detailed reports on the services provided, patient progress, and any changes in the care plan. This information is crucial for ensuring that the patient receives appropriate reimbursement for the care received. Incorrect choices: A: Nursing process form - While a nursing process form is important for documenting patient care, it is not specifically related to reporting to third-party payers. B: Step-by-step skills manual - While a skills manual may be helpful for guiding care provision, it is not typically included in the patient's medical record. C: A list of possible procedures - While a list of procedures may be useful for reference, it is not a formal part of the patient's medical record for home care documentation.
Question 4 of 9
A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bilateral mastectomy. This intervention involves removing both breasts to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in the future. For a woman with a history of breast cancer in one breast, opting for bilateral mastectomy can significantly decrease the likelihood of cancer recurrence. This proactive approach is often recommended for individuals with a high risk of developing breast cancer. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: More aggressive chemotherapy - Chemotherapy is typically used to treat existing cancer cells, not as a prophylactic measure to prevent cancer. B: Left mastectomy - This option only removes the affected breast, not addressing the risk of cancer developing in the other breast. C: Radiation therapy - While radiation therapy can be used as part of the treatment for breast cancer, it is not a prophylactic measure to prevent future cancer development in the contralateral breast.
Question 5 of 9
A patient on the medical unit is dying and the nurse has determined that the familys psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end of life?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial of imminent death on the part of the family or the patient. This is a common cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life because denial can lead to unrealistic expectations, difficulty in making important decisions, and inadequate planning for end-of-life care. This can result in unnecessary suffering for the patient and added stress for the family. Incorrect choices: A: Poor communication between the family and the care team can contribute to challenges in providing appropriate care but may not be the primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life. C: Limited visitation opportunities for friends and family, while important for psychosocial support, may not directly cause patient care dilemmas. D: Conflict between family members can complicate decision-making processes, but it is not necessarily a primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life.
Question 6 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after mastoid surgery. What topic should the nurse address in the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: After mastoid surgery, patients may experience pain and dizziness, hence addressing the safe use of analgesics and antivertiginous agents is crucial for symptom management. Step 2: Analgesics help in managing post-operative pain, while antivertiginous agents help control dizziness, reducing the risk of falls. Step 3: Educating the patient on safe use ensures proper pain and symptom management, preventing complications. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address immediate post-operative care needs such as pain and dizziness management.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient’s ethnohistory.Which question should the nurse ask?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it directly addresses the patient's ethnohistory by asking about the differences in their life here compared to back home. This question helps the nurse understand the patient's cultural background, beliefs, and practices. Option A focuses solely on language, which is not sufficient to understand ethnohistory. Option C inquires about caregivers during sickness, which is important but does not specifically relate to ethnohistory. Option D compares treatment approaches, which is relevant but doesn't explore the broader cultural context as effectively as option B.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a continenturinary reservoir. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teach the patient how to self-cath the pouch. In a continent urinary reservoir, patients need to catheterize the pouch several times a day. This is essential for emptying the urine from the pouch as the ileocecal valve creates a one-way valve. Teaching the patient how to self-catheterize ensures proper and timely drainage, preventing complications like urinary retention. Self-catheterization also empowers the patient to take an active role in managing their continence. Summary of other choices: B: Kegel exercises are ineffective for a patient with a continent urinary reservoir as they do not address the need for catheterization. C: Changing the collection pouch is not the primary action needed for a continent urinary reservoir. Catheterization is essential for drainage. D: The Valsalva technique is not appropriate for voiding in a continent urinary reservoir. Catheterization is the recommended method for emptying the pouch.