A patient who has recently begun hormone replacement therapy with estrogen asks the NP how the hormone will affect her nonreproductive tissues. Which response(s) by the NP are appropriate? (select all that apply)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It suppresses bone resorption. Estrogen plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by inhibiting bone resorption, thus reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Estrogen does not directly reduce LDLs or fat deposits in the liver. While estrogen can have an impact on coagulation, it typically promotes anticoagulation rather than promoting and suppressing coagulation simultaneously. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate response as it directly correlates with the effects of estrogen on nonreproductive tissues.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Drug excretion via the GI tract occurs when drugs are not absorbed and are eliminated through feces. 2. The respiratory tract does not play a significant role in drug excretion. 3. The lymphatic system primarily transports immune cells and fats, not drugs. 4. The circulatory system transports drugs to tissues but not for direct excretion.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because drug blood levels indicate if the amount of drug in the body is within a therapeutic range, ensuring the drug is effective and safe. Choice A is incorrect because blood levels do not confirm the drug's specific form. Choice B is incorrect as body fat does not directly relate to drug metabolism. Choice C is incorrect as blood levels do not verify medication ownership.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flucytosine. Flucytosine is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections like cryptococcal meningitis. The other options, Fluorouracil and Cytarabine, are chemotherapy drugs used for cancer treatment. Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal skin infections. Flucytosine is the most likely drug given in this scenario due to its specific indication for fungal infections, which aligns with the patient's symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Squalene epoxidase. Terbinafine is an antifungal drug that inhibits squalene epoxidase, a key enzyme in the ergosterol biosynthesis pathway in fungi. Inhibition of squalene epoxidase disrupts fungal cell membrane synthesis, leading to cell death. Thymidylate synthase (A) is involved in DNA synthesis, not the target of terbinafine. Lanosterol synthetase (B) is not a direct target of terbinafine. Transpeptidase (D) is an enzyme targeted by antibiotics like penicillin, not terbinafine. In summary, squalene epoxidase is the correct choice as it is the specific target of terbinafine in fungal cells, distinguishing it from the other options.