A patient who has received some traumatic news is panicking and asks for some medication to help settle down. The nurse anticipates giving which drug that is most appropriate for this situation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: diazepam (Valium). Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that is commonly used for its anxiolytic properties. It works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA in the brain, leading to a calming effect. In the given situation of a patient panicking after receiving traumatic news, diazepam can help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: zolpidem (Ambien) is a sedative-hypnotic primarily used for treating insomnia, not anxiety or panic. C: phenobarbital is a barbiturate with sedative and anticonvulsant properties, but it is not commonly used for acute anxiety or panic attacks. D: cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) is a muscle relaxant and does not have anxiolytic properties to help with panic or anxiety.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diarrhea. Fibric acid derivatives are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as diarrhea. This occurs due to increased bile acid secretion and can lead to loose stools. Constipation (choice A) is not typically associated with fibric acid derivatives. Joint pain (choice C) is not a common side effect of this medication class. Dry mouth (choice D) is also not a typical adverse effect of fibric acid derivatives. Hence, the correct adverse effect is diarrhea.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the iron tablets with meals if gastrointestinal distress occurs. This is because taking iron supplements with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects such as stomach upset and nausea. It also enhances iron absorption. A is incorrect because taking iron tablets with milk or antacids can decrease iron absorption. B is incorrect because crushing iron pills can alter their effectiveness and may cause irritation to the stomach lining. D is incorrect because black tarry stools are a common side effect of iron supplements and do not necessarily indicate an emergency situation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The elimination rate constant (Kelim) is a key parameter that quantifies the rate at which a drug is removed from the body. It is directly related to the drug's half-life (t ½). The correct answer is D because the half-life is the time required for the drug concentration to decrease by half in the body, which is a crucial factor in determining the rate of elimination. Rate of absorption (A) refers to the speed at which a drug enters the bloodstream, not its elimination. Maximal concentration in plasma (B) and highest single dose (C) are not directly related to the elimination rate constant, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Procaine. Procaine is an ester local anesthetic that is derived from benzoic acid. It is commonly known as Novocain. Lidocaine (A) is an amide local anesthetic. Ropivacaine (C) is also an amide local anesthetic. Cocaine (D) is a natural alkaloid derivative and not an ester of benzoic acid. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it is the only option that matches the criteria provided in the question.