A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:

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Question 1 of 9

A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management. Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse cites evidence-based practice as a rationale for a patient care decision. What isthe best description of evidence-based practice?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of best available research data. Evidence-based practice involves integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values to make informed decisions about patient care. It emphasizes using scientifically proven data to guide practice and improve patient outcomes. Expert legal testimony (A) is not necessarily evidence-based. Evolution of nursing practice over time (C) does not specifically focus on research data. Individual optimization of patient outcomes (D) is a goal of evidence-based practice, but it does not fully encompass the concept.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort. 2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea. 3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea. 4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario. 5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory dist ress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The primary care provider (PCP) orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and aabnirba.lcgoems/tieas,t the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the PCP of this assessment and anticipates what order?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade. 1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade. 3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony. 4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.

Question 5 of 9

As part of the Synergy Model, the nurse has identified a patient characteristic of resiliency. What patient behavior demonstrates resiliency?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because developing a list of questions for the physician shows active engagement in their healthcare, seeking information, and taking control of their situation, which are characteristics of resiliency. This behavior indicates the patient's willingness to understand and cope with their health condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they demonstrate maladaptive coping mechanisms such as dysfunctional grieving, denial, and blame assignment, which are not indicative of resiliency. Resiliency involves adaptability, problem-solving, and seeking support, which are better exemplified by choice B.

Question 6 of 9

To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.

Question 7 of 9

Which is likely the most common recollection from a patie nt who required endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Difficulty communicating. When a patient undergoes endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation, they are unable to speak normally. This leads to frustration and anxiety due to the inability to communicate effectively with healthcare providers and loved ones. The lack of communication can also impact their emotional well-being. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as the most common recollection because patients might not remember feeling uncomfortable, experiencing pain, or having sleep disruption during sedation and ventilation. Additionally, the inability to communicate is a primary concern for patients in this situation.

Question 8 of 9

An unresponsive 79-year-old is admitted to the emergency department (ED) during a summer heat wave. The patient’s core temperature is 105.4°F (40.8°C), blood pressure (BP) 88/50, and pulse 112. The nurse initially will plan to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient. This is the initial treatment for hyperthermia to aid in lowering the body temperature. Wet sheets help in evaporative cooling, while a fan enhances heat loss through convection. This approach is crucial in managing heat-related illnesses quickly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the urgent need to reduce the patient's elevated core temperature. Providing O2, IV fluids, or acetaminophen can be considered later in the management, but the priority is to rapidly lower the body temperature in a hyperthermic patient to prevent further complications.

Question 9 of 9

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability. A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis. B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis. C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process. In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.

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