A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management. Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern. A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common intrarenal condition as it directly affects kidney tubules. 2. ATN is characterized by damage to renal tubular cells due to various factors like toxins or ischemia. 3. Prolonged ischemia (choice A) can lead to ATN but is not the most common intrarenal condition. 4. Exposure to nephrotoxic substances (choice B) can cause ATN, but ATN itself is more common. 5. Hypotension for several hours (choice D) can result in ischemia and subsequent ATN, but ATN is still the primary intrarenal condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability. A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis. B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis. C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process. In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort. 2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea. 3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea. 4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario. 5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory acidosis may occur if the patient continues at these ventilator settings. Respiratory acidosis happens when the lungs cannot remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body. In this case, the low respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min may not be sufficient to adequately remove CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in a decrease in blood pH, causing respiratory acidosis. Summary of other choices: A: Metabolic acidosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are more likely to affect the respiratory system rather than the metabolic system. B: Metabolic alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the ventilator settings are not related to causing an increase in blood pH, which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis. D: Respiratory alkalosis - Not the correct answer as the low respiratory rate would not lead to excessive elimination of CO2, causing alkalosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. This is the best approach for managing continuous and severe pain in a terminally ill patient. By providing scheduled doses of opioid pain medications, the nurse ensures a consistent level of pain relief, preventing peaks and troughs in pain control. This approach also helps in preventing the patient from experiencing unnecessary suffering. Choice B (PRN doses) may lead to inadequate pain control as the patient may wait too long before requesting medication. Choice C (keeping the patient sedated) is not appropriate as the goal is pain management, not sedation. Choice D (balancing pain control and respiratory rate) is important, but the priority should be on effectively managing the pain first.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray. This procedure is noninvasive and commonly used to assess kidney function by visualizing the size, shape, and position of the kidneys. Renal ultrasound is also noninvasive and can provide detailed images of the kidneys. However, MRI and IVP are more invasive procedures that involve the use of contrast agents and are not typically used solely for diagnostic purposes to assess kidney function. Overall, KUB x-ray and renal ultrasound are the preferred noninvasive options for evaluating kidney function.