ATI RN
ATI Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient who has chest pain is admitted to the emergency department (ED), and all of the following are ordered. Which one should the nurse arrange to be completed first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram (ECG). This should be arranged first because it provides immediate information on the patient's cardiac status, helping to determine if the chest pain is due to a heart-related issue like a myocardial infarction. A quick ECG can identify any acute changes in the heart's electrical activity. This is crucial for prompt intervention and treatment. Summary of other choices: A: Chest x-ray - While important for assessing lung and chest abnormalities, it does not provide immediate information on the patient's cardiac status. B: Troponin level - Useful for detecting myocardial damage, but results may take time to be available. Not as immediate as an ECG. D: Insertion of a peripheral IV - Important for administering medications and fluids, but not a priority over assessing the cardiac status in a patient with chest pain.
Question 2 of 5
Following a left anterior myocardial infarction, a client undergoes insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. Which finding most strongly suggests left-sided heart failure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an increase in pulmonary artery diastolic pressure indicates left-sided heart failure. In this scenario, the left side of the heart is unable to adequately pump blood to the rest of the body, causing an increase in pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This finding is consistent with the pathophysiology of left-sided heart failure. A: A drop in central venous pressure is more indicative of hypovolemia or right-sided heart failure. B: An increase in the cardiac index may suggest improved cardiac output, not specifically left-sided heart failure. D: A decline in mean pulmonary artery pressure is not a typical finding in left-sided heart failure.
Question 3 of 5
An infant is diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosus. Which drug should the nurse anticipate administering to attempt to close the defect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Indomethacin (Indocin). Indomethacin is a prostaglandin inhibitor that helps close the patent ductus arteriosus in infants by constricting the ductus arteriosus. This drug is specifically used for this purpose due to its mechanism of action. Digoxin (A) is a cardiac glycoside used for heart conditions, not to close PDA. Prednisone (B) is a corticosteroid that does not have a direct effect on closing PDA. Furosemide (C) is a diuretic used for managing fluid overload, not for closing PDA.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a dignosis of aortic stenosis. The client reports episodes of angina and passing out recently at home. The client has surgery scheduled in 2 weeks. Which of the following would be the nurse's best explanation about activity at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in aortic stenosis, there is an obstruction of blood flow from the heart to the body. Strenuous activities can worsen the condition by increasing the workload on the heart, leading to angina and fainting. Preoperative preparation focuses on reducing the risk of complications during surgery. Therefore, advising the client to avoid strenuous exercise, stairs, and lifting helps minimize the risk of exacerbating symptoms and potential complications before surgery. Explanation for other choices: B: Taking short walks may be too strenuous for a client with aortic stenosis and can potentially worsen symptoms. C: Allowing unrestricted activity can be dangerous for a client with aortic stenosis, as it may lead to worsening symptoms and increased risk of complications. D: Gradually increasing activity can be risky for a client with aortic stenosis, as it can increase the workload on the heart and exacerbate symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing a deep-vein thrombosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A 40-year-old woman who smokes and uses oral contraceptives is at highest risk due to the combined effects of smoking and oral contraceptives, both of which increase the risk of blood clot formation. Smoking damages blood vessels and increases clotting tendency. Oral contraceptives also increase the risk of clotting due to hormonal changes. These factors can lead to the development of deep-vein thrombosis. Summary: A: 30-year-old postpartum client is at lower risk compared to smoking and oral contraceptive use. B: 63-year-old post-CVA on anticoagulant therapy is already being treated to prevent clots. D: 41-year-old female post-surgery is at lower risk compared to smoking and oral contraceptive use.