A patient who has been taking tetracycline for a long time has developed candidosis of mucous membranes. What drug shoul administered for its treatment?

Questions 82

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Free Microbiology Test Bank Questions PDF Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient who has been taking tetracycline for a long time has developed candidosis of mucous membranes. What drug shoul administered for its treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Itraconazole. Itraconazole is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat candidosis. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes. This action disrupts the integrity of the fungal cell membrane, leading to cell death. Griseofulvin (B) is primarily used to treat fungal infections of the skin and nails, not mucous membranes. Nitrofungin (C) is not commonly used for candidosis treatment. Amphotericin (D) is a potent antifungal medication but is typically reserved for severe or systemic fungal infections due to its potential side effects.

Question 2 of 9

A patient working at a pig farm complains about paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces with admixtures of mucus and blood, headache, weakness, fever. Examination of large intestine revealed ulcers from 1 mm up to several cm large, feces contained oval unicellular organisms with cilia. What disease should be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with Balantidiasis, caused by the parasite Balantidium coli. The presence of ciliated oval organisms in the feces is characteristic of this disease. Ulcers in the large intestine are common in Balantidiasis due to tissue invasion by the parasite. Headache, fever, and abdominal pain are typical symptoms. Other choices can be ruled out: B) Amebiasis presents with similar symptoms but usually involves the liver. C) Toxoplasmosis typically presents with lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms. D) Lambliasis usually causes watery diarrhea without blood or mucus. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Balantidiasis.

Question 3 of 9

Protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to group:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases fall under Group I according to the classification of infectious diseases by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Group I includes diseases caused by newly identified or known infectious agents that have increased in incidence or geographic range. Choice B (Group II) includes diseases that have re-emerged due to antimicrobial resistance or lack of previous vaccination. Choice C (Group III) encompasses diseases that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and choice D (Group IV) includes diseases that are caused by re-introduction of eradicated pathogens.

Question 4 of 9

Which bacteria is known for causing a disease characterized by a pseudomembrane in the throat?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium causes diphtheria, a disease characterized by a pseudomembrane in the throat. This pseudomembrane is a result of the bacterial exotoxins causing inflammation and necrosis of the throat tissues. Clostridium tetani (A) causes tetanus, characterized by muscle stiffness, not a pseudomembrane in the throat. Bordetella pertussis (B) causes whooping cough, with symptoms of severe coughing fits but no pseudomembrane. Streptococcus pyogenes (D) causes strep throat, but does not produce a pseudomembrane.

Question 5 of 9

Which is the most prominent immunoglobulin class present in external secretions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgA. IgA is the most prominent immunoglobulin class present in external secretions like saliva, tears, and mucus. It plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity by preventing pathogens from entering the body. IgG is mainly found in the blood and tissues, IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection, and IgE is involved in allergic reactions. IgA's presence in external secretions helps protect the body from infections at mucosal surfaces, making it the correct choice in this context.

Question 6 of 9

The generation time of bacteria refers to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The generation time of bacteria refers to the time for a cell to divide and double in number. This is because the generation time is the period required for one bacterial cell to undergo binary fission and divide into two identical daughter cells. This process involves DNA replication, followed by cell division, resulting in an increase in the number of bacterial cells. Incorrect choices: A: The time for DNA replication - While DNA replication is a crucial part of bacterial growth and reproduction, it does not solely define the generation time. C: The time for spore formation - Spore formation is a specific process in certain bacteria and is not synonymous with the generation time. D: The time for toxin production - Toxin production is an independent process in bacteria and does not directly relate to the generation time.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following viral infections can result in chronic carrier state.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of these. HBV, HCV, and HDV can all lead to chronic carrier states due to their ability to establish persistent infections in the liver. HBV can result in chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and even liver cancer. HCV can also lead to chronic hepatitis and liver damage. HDV is a defective virus that requires HBV for replication and can worsen the outcome of HBV infection, potentially leading to chronic liver disease. Therefore, all three viruses have the potential to cause chronic carrier states.

Question 8 of 9

Microscopy of a smear obtained from a patient with acute purulent periostitis revealed gram-positive bacteria arranged in clusters resembling bunch of grapes. What microorganisms is this morphology typical for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Staphylococci are gram-positive bacteria that typically arrange in clusters resembling a bunch of grapes. This characteristic morphology is specific to staphylococci due to their division pattern. Sarcina, Tetracocci, and Candida fungi do not exhibit this clustering pattern. Staphylococci are commonly associated with purulent infections, making them the most likely microorganisms in this scenario.

Question 9 of 9

A 47-year-old patient came to see a doctor on the 7th day of disease. The disease developed very fast: after the chill body temperature rose to 40oC and lasted up to 7 hours, then dropped abruptly, which caused profuse sweat. There were three such attacks occur in once in two days. Two days ago the patient arrived from Africa. Objectively: pale skin, subicteric sclera, significantly enlarged liver and spleen. What is the cause of fever attacks in this disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythrocytic schizogony. In this case, the patient most likely has malaria, specifically caused by Plasmodium falciparum. The fever attacks every 2 days (tertian fever) are characteristic of P. falciparum infection. The cycle of erythrocytic schizogony in P. falciparum is around 48 hours, leading to the recurring fever pattern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tissue schizogony does not cause the characteristic fever pattern, exotoxins are not typically involved in malaria fever, and gametocytes do not directly cause fever attacks.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days