A patient who has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) 60 mg daily for the past 6 months tells the nurse at the medication follow-up clinic that he is considering stopping the Prozac. He states his mood is fine, and now that he is living normally, his wife is concerned that he has no sex drive. Which response would be best?

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Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient who has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) 60 mg daily for the past 6 months tells the nurse at the medication follow-up clinic that he is considering stopping the Prozac. He states his mood is fine, and now that he is living normally, his wife is concerned that he has no sex drive. Which response would be best?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it addresses the patient's concern about sexual side effects while highlighting the importance of continuing antidepressant treatment to prevent the recurrence of depression. It acknowledges the impact of medication on sexual function and offers a solution by mentioning other medications that may have fewer sexual side effects. Option A fails to address the patient's concern about sex drive and does not provide a solution to the issue. Option B focuses only on adjusting medication timing but does not address the underlying problem of sexual side effects. Option C dismisses the medication as the cause of the issue without offering a potential solution or addressing the importance of continued treatment for depression.

Question 2 of 5

SSRIs improve depression by which action? SSRIs:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: SSRIs make more serotonin available at the synaptic gap. SSRIs work by blocking the reuptake of serotonin, allowing more serotonin to remain in the synaptic gap, leading to enhanced transmission of signals between neurons. This increased availability of serotonin helps regulate mood and emotions, ultimately alleviating symptoms of depression. Choice A is incorrect because SSRIs do not destroy serotonin but rather prevent its reuptake. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not block muscarinic and α1 norepinephrine receptors; they specifically target serotonin reuptake. Choice D is incorrect because SSRIs do not increase the production of acetylcholine and dopamine; their primary mechanism of action is related to serotonin.

Question 3 of 5

Pharmacogenetics will eventually allow researchers to do which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Allow the design of custom drugs. Pharmacogenetics involves studying how genes influence a person's response to drugs. By understanding how genetic variations affect drug metabolism and efficacy, researchers can design personalized medications tailored to an individual's genetic profile. This approach can lead to more effective and safer treatments. Choice A is incorrect because removing genes that cause illness is not the focus of pharmacogenetics; it is more about optimizing drug therapies based on genetic information. Choice C is incorrect as pharmacogenetics primarily deals with drug responses, not food development. Choice D is incorrect as splicing genes for health improvement is more related to genetic engineering and gene therapy, not specifically pharmacogenetics.

Question 4 of 5

While monitoring a patient who had surgery under general anesthesia 2 hours ago, the nurse notes a sudden elevation in body temperature. This finding may be an indication of which problem?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The sudden elevation in body temperature post-surgery under general anesthesia is indicative of malignant hyperthermia (MH), a rare but life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Here's why D is the correct answer: 1. MH is characterized by a rapid increase in body temperature due to uncontrolled muscle metabolism. 2. Common signs include tachycardia, muscle rigidity, and high fever. 3. Prompt recognition and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications. On the other hand: A: Tachyphylaxis is a rapid decrease in response to a drug with repeated dosing. B: Postoperative infection would typically present with localized signs like redness, swelling, and purulent discharge. C: Malignant hypertension is marked by severely elevated blood pressure, not body temperature.

Question 5 of 5

A patient’s blood pressure elevates to 270/150 mm Hg, and a hypertensive emergency is obvious. He is transferred to the intensive care unit and started on a sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) drip to be titrated per his response. With this medication, the nurse knows that the maximum dose of this drug should be infused for how long?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 10 minutes. Sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies. It has a rapid onset of action and short half-life. Infusing the maximum dose for a longer duration could lead to excessive hypotension. Therefore, it should be titrated carefully, usually starting with a lower dose and increasing gradually. In this case, the nurse should monitor the patient's response closely and adjust the dose as needed every 5-10 minutes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest longer infusion durations, which could pose a risk of severe hypotension and adverse effects.

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