ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. In the context of a brain tumor, vomiting that is not related to food intake can indicate increased intracranial pressure affecting the brain's vomiting center. This is known as projectile vomiting. A: Vomiting accompanied by epistaxis (nosebleeds) is more indicative of other conditions like hypertension or nasal issues, not necessarily specific to a brain tumor. B: Vomiting not relieving nausea can be seen in various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, not specifically brain tumors. D: Blood-tinged emesis can suggest gastrointestinal bleeding or other issues, but it's not a specific characteristic of vomiting associated with brain tumors.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan to reduce data entryerrors and maintain confidentiality. Which guidelines should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement an automatic sign-off. This guideline helps reduce data entry errors by ensuring that all entries are completed and saved before exiting the system, thus maintaining confidentiality. Bypassing the firewall (A) would compromise data security. Creating a password with just letters (C) may not be secure enough. Using a programmed speed-dial key when faxing (D) is unrelated to reducing data entry errors or maintaining confidentiality.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.
Question 4 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse leading an educational session is describing self-examination of the breast. The nurse tells the womens group to raise their arms and inspect their breasts in a mirror. A member of the womens group asks the nurse why raising her arms is necessary. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It helps to spread out the fat that makes up your breast. Raising the arms during breast self-examination stretches the breast tissue, making it easier to detect any lumps or abnormalities. This action also helps to distribute the breast tissue evenly, providing a clearer view of the entire breast. This method ensures a more thorough examination and increases the chances of detecting any changes in the breast tissue early on. Summary of incorrect choices: B: It allows you to simultaneously assess for pain - Although assessing for pain is important, raising the arms specifically helps with spreading out the breast tissue, not necessarily for assessing pain. C: It will help to observe for dimpling more closely - While observing for dimpling is important, raising the arms is primarily for spreading out the breast tissue, not for observing dimpling. D: This is what the American Cancer Society recommends - While recommendations from reputable sources are important, the rationale behind raising the arms during breast self-examination is not solely
Question 6 of 9
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of retinal inflammation in patients with AIDS. What drug, surgically implanted, is used for the acute stage of CMV retinitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Ganciclovir is the correct answer for the acute stage of CMV retinitis in AIDS patients. It is an antiviral drug that specifically targets CMV. Ganciclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis, effectively controlling CMV replication in the eye. Pilocarpine (A) is a miotic used for glaucoma, not for CMV retinitis. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV. Gentamicin (D) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bells palsy. The nurses plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the face. This manifests as drooping of the eyelid and corner of the mouth, difficulty smiling or closing the eye. Tinnitus (A) is ringing in the ears, not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Pain at the base of the tongue (C) is not a typical manifestation of Bell's palsy. Diplopia (D) is double vision, which is not a primary symptom of Bell's palsy. Therefore, the correct manifestation to address in the plan of care for a patient with Bell's palsy is facial paralysis.
Question 8 of 9
An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinsons disease. Which of the wifes descriptions of her husbands health and function is most suggestive of Parkinsons disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one of the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson's disease is bradykinesia, which is characterized by slowness of movement. This symptom commonly presents as a person moving far more slowly than usual. Option B is more indicative of arthritis or another musculoskeletal condition. Option C suggests possible cognitive decline or dementia, not specific to Parkinson's disease. Option D could indicate a different medical condition causing weight loss despite a good appetite. Therefore, A is the most suggestive of Parkinson's disease based on the symptom of bradykinesia.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is planning health education for a patient who has experienced a vaginal infection. What guidelines should the nurse include in this program regarding prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid feminine hygiene products, such as sprays. This is because feminine hygiene products can disrupt the natural balance of vaginal flora, leading to an increased risk of vaginal infections. Tight-fitting synthetic underwear (choice A) can trap moisture and promote bacterial growth. Using bubble bath (choice B) can irritate the genital area and disrupt the pH balance. Restricting daily bathing (choice D) is not recommended as regular hygiene practices are important for preventing infections. In summary, choice C is correct as it promotes maintaining the natural vaginal flora and pH balance to prevent infections, while the other choices can contribute to an increased risk of vaginal infections.