ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. In the context of a brain tumor, vomiting that is not related to food intake can indicate increased intracranial pressure affecting the brain's vomiting center. This is known as projectile vomiting. A: Vomiting accompanied by epistaxis (nosebleeds) is more indicative of other conditions like hypertension or nasal issues, not necessarily specific to a brain tumor. B: Vomiting not relieving nausea can be seen in various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, not specifically brain tumors. D: Blood-tinged emesis can suggest gastrointestinal bleeding or other issues, but it's not a specific characteristic of vomiting associated with brain tumors.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse works at a hospital that uses equity-focusedquality improvement. Which strategy is the hospital using?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce disparities. In equity-focused quality improvement, the primary goal is to address and reduce disparities in healthcare outcomes and access. By focusing on reducing disparities, the hospital ensures that all patients receive equitable care regardless of their background. Documenting staff satisfaction (A) is important but not directly related to equity-focused improvement. Focusing on the family (B) is essential for patient-centered care but doesn't specifically address equity. Implementing change on a grand scale (C) may not necessarily target disparities directly. Therefore, reducing disparities aligns best with equity-focused quality improvement principles.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of atopic dermatitis, which commonly affects both of her hands and forearms. What risk nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the patients care plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Self-Care Deficit Related to Skin Lesions. Patients with atopic dermatitis may experience difficulty performing self-care tasks due to pain, itching, and limitations in hand mobility caused by skin lesions. This diagnosis addresses the potential challenges the patient may face in maintaining personal hygiene and managing their skin condition. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Risk for Disturbed Body Image Related to Skin Lesions - While atopic dermatitis may impact body image, the priority in this case is the patient's ability to perform self-care. B: Risk for Disuse Syndrome Related to Dermatitis - Disuse syndrome is not typically associated with atopic dermatitis. C: Risk for Ineffective Role Performance Related to Dermatitis - This diagnosis focuses on the patient's ability to fulfill their roles, which may not be directly impacted by atopic dermatitis.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is providing preoperative education for a patient diagnosed with endometriosis. A hysterectomy has been scheduled. What education topic should the nurse be sure to include for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it addresses a crucial aspect of preoperative care for a patient undergoing a hysterectomy due to endometriosis. Emptying the bladder before surgery helps prevent urinary retention postoperatively. Placing a catheter during surgery ensures proper drainage and prevents bladder distention. This education topic is essential for the patient's comfort and well-being during and after the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Menstrual periods will not continue after a hysterectomy as the uterus is removed. B: Normal activity is usually restricted after a hysterectomy to promote healing. C: Hormone levels are affected after a hysterectomy, especially if the ovaries are also removed.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with paraphimosis. The physician is able to compress the glans and manually reduce the edema. Once the inflammation and edema subside, what is usually indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Circumcision. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted behind the glans and cannot be returned to its original position. Once the inflammation and edema subside, circumcision is typically indicated to prevent recurrence. This procedure removes the foreskin, reducing the risk of future paraphimosis episodes. Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum (A) is not indicated for paraphimosis. Abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks (C) is not a standard treatment for paraphimosis. Administration of vardenafil (D) is used for erectile dysfunction and not indicated for paraphimosis.
Question 6 of 9
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention. This intervention is the most crucial as it directly addresses the issue of the increasing incidence of HIV infection. By providing education on how to control and prevent the spread of HIV, the nurse can empower the community to take proactive measures to reduce transmission rates. A: Lifestyle actions that improve immune function may be helpful in general health promotion but do not directly target the prevention of HIV transmission. C: Appropriate use of standard precautions is important but is more focused on healthcare settings rather than community-wide prevention efforts. D: Screening programs for youth and young adults are valuable but may not be as effective as educational programs in preventing the spread of HIV.
Question 7 of 9
An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinsons disease. Which of the wifes descriptions of her husbands health and function is most suggestive of Parkinsons disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one of the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson's disease is bradykinesia, which is characterized by slowness of movement. This symptom commonly presents as a person moving far more slowly than usual. Option B is more indicative of arthritis or another musculoskeletal condition. Option C suggests possible cognitive decline or dementia, not specific to Parkinson's disease. Option D could indicate a different medical condition causing weight loss despite a good appetite. Therefore, A is the most suggestive of Parkinson's disease based on the symptom of bradykinesia.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse asks a patient where the pain is, andthe patient responds by pointing to the area of pain. Which form of communication did the patient use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonverbal. The patient used nonverbal communication by pointing to the area of pain, which is a form of expressing information without words. This choice is correct because pointing is a nonverbal gesture that conveys a specific message. Verbal communication (A) involves spoken or written words, which were not used in this scenario. Intonation (C) refers to the rise and fall of the voice in speech, which was not demonstrated by the patient. Vocabulary (D) is the range of words known or used by a person, but the patient did not use words to communicate in this situation. In summary, the patient used nonverbal communication through pointing, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has just died following urosepsis that progressed to septic shock. The patients spouse says, I knew this was coming, but I feel so numb and hollow inside. The nurse should know that these statements are characteristic of what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complicated grief and mourning. This is characterized by a sense of emotional numbness and feeling hollow inside, which the patient's spouse is experiencing after the patient's death. Complicated grief involves intense and prolonged mourning that may interfere with daily functioning. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Uncomplicated grief and mourning typically involves a range of emotions, including sadness and sorrow, but not the profound numbness and emptiness described. C: Depression stage of dying refers to a stage in the Kubler-Ross model, but the patient's spouse is not the one dying, so this does not apply. D: Acceptance stage of dying involves coming to terms with one's impending death, not the aftermath of losing a loved one to sepsis.