ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. In the context of a brain tumor, vomiting that is not related to food intake can indicate increased intracranial pressure affecting the brain's vomiting center. This is known as projectile vomiting. A: Vomiting accompanied by epistaxis (nosebleeds) is more indicative of other conditions like hypertension or nasal issues, not necessarily specific to a brain tumor. B: Vomiting not relieving nausea can be seen in various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, not specifically brain tumors. D: Blood-tinged emesis can suggest gastrointestinal bleeding or other issues, but it's not a specific characteristic of vomiting associated with brain tumors.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the patients health history. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to assess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased abdominal girth. In ovarian cancer, a common clinical manifestation is the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, leading to increased abdominal girth. This is known as ascites. The presence of ascites can be observed through physical examination and abdominal imaging. A: Fish-like vaginal odor is not typically associated with ovarian cancer. It may be a symptom of other gynecological conditions. C: Fever and chills are not specific to ovarian cancer and can be seen in various infectious or inflammatory conditions. D: Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common symptom in many gynecological conditions but is not a specific manifestation of ovarian cancer.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse leading an educational session is describing self-examination of the breast. The nurse tells the womens group to raise their arms and inspect their breasts in a mirror. A member of the womens group asks the nurse why raising her arms is necessary. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It helps to spread out the fat that makes up your breast. Raising the arms during breast self-examination stretches the breast tissue, making it easier to detect any lumps or abnormalities. This action also helps to distribute the breast tissue evenly, providing a clearer view of the entire breast. This method ensures a more thorough examination and increases the chances of detecting any changes in the breast tissue early on. Summary of incorrect choices: B: It allows you to simultaneously assess for pain - Although assessing for pain is important, raising the arms specifically helps with spreading out the breast tissue, not necessarily for assessing pain. C: It will help to observe for dimpling more closely - While observing for dimpling is important, raising the arms is primarily for spreading out the breast tissue, not for observing dimpling. D: This is what the American Cancer Society recommends - While recommendations from reputable sources are important, the rationale behind raising the arms during breast self-examination is not solely
Question 4 of 9
A patient has just died following urosepsis that progressed to septic shock. The patients spouse says, I knew this was coming, but I feel so numb and hollow inside. The nurse should know that these statements are characteristic of what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complicated grief and mourning. This is characterized by a sense of emotional numbness and feeling hollow inside, which the patient's spouse is experiencing after the patient's death. Complicated grief involves intense and prolonged mourning that may interfere with daily functioning. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Uncomplicated grief and mourning typically involves a range of emotions, including sadness and sorrow, but not the profound numbness and emptiness described. C: Depression stage of dying refers to a stage in the Kubler-Ross model, but the patient's spouse is not the one dying, so this does not apply. D: Acceptance stage of dying involves coming to terms with one's impending death, not the aftermath of losing a loved one to sepsis.
Question 5 of 9
You are caring for a 50-year-old man diagnosed with multiple myeloma; he has just been told by the care team that his prognosis is poor. He is tearful and trying to express his feelings, but he is having difficulty. What should you do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ask if he would like you to sit with him while he collects his thoughts. Rationale: 1. Active listening: By offering to sit with him, you show empathy and support his emotional expression. 2. Respect his autonomy: Asking if he would like you to sit allows him to make a choice about what support he needs. 3. Nonjudgmental approach: Sitting with him creates a safe space for him to share his feelings without feeling rushed or judged. Summary: B: Leaving abruptly may make him feel abandoned in a vulnerable moment. C: While spiritual support can be beneficial, it may not address his immediate emotional needs. D: Reassurance is important but may not be as effective as actively listening and offering support in this context.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures.What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an ultrasound-guided core biopsy is indeed faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. - "Faster": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are typically quicker compared to stereotactic biopsies, as they are performed in real-time using ultrasound imaging. - "Less expensive": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are generally more cost-effective than stereotactic biopsies due to the equipment and resources required. - "Does not use radiation": Unlike stereotactic biopsies which involve the use of X-rays for guidance, ultrasound-guided biopsies do not expose the patient to radiation, making them safer in that aspect. The other choices are incorrect because they either inaccurately state that ultrasound-guided biopsies use radiation (C), take more time (D), or imply a slight increase in cost without highlighting the key advantages of speed and lack of radiation (B).
Question 7 of 9
Massage around the feces and work down to remove.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the massage is to start around the feces (4), then work downwards (1), followed by moving towards the sides (5), then back to the top (2), continuing to the sides again (3), and finally finishing at the top (6). This sequence ensures a thorough and effective massage process. Other choices have different orders that do not follow the logical flow of massaging around the feces and working down as specified in the question.
Question 8 of 9
Which postpartum patient reqNuUirResS fuIrNthGerT aBss.esCsmOeMnt?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the postpartum patient who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours should receive further assessment. This indicates excessive postpartum bleeding (postpartum hemorrhage), which is a critical complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring vital signs, assessing for signs of shock, evaluating uterine tone, and determining the cause of bleeding are crucial steps in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Choices B, C, and D are not the correct answers because: B: A patient with Class II heart disease complaining of frequent coughing is more likely experiencing cardiac-related issues and requires evaluation and management by a cardiologist. C: A patient with gestational diabetes and a fasting blood sugar level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate further assessment. D: A postcesarean patient with active herpes lesions on the labia requires appropriate management of the herpes infection but does not necess
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington disease who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of malnutrition. What independent nursing action should be implemented in the patients plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Encourage the patient to keep his or her feeding area clean. This is the most appropriate independent nursing action as it promotes hygiene and reduces the risk of infection. Keeping the feeding area clean is essential in preventing complications in a patient with malnutrition. Rationales for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Firmly redirect the patient's head when feeding - This is incorrect because forceful redirection can cause distress and discomfort to the patient, potentially leading to aspiration or choking. B: Administer phenothiazines after each meal as ordered - This is incorrect as phenothiazines are not typically used for malnutrition treatment and should not be administered without a specific indication. D: Apply deep, gentle pressure around the patient's mouth to aid swallowing - This is incorrect because applying pressure around the mouth can pose a choking hazard and should not be done without proper assessment and intervention by a speech therapist or swallowing specialist.