ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient who has been diagnosed with inoperable lung cancer and has a poor prognosis plans a trip across the country to settle some issues with their siblings. The nurse recognizes that the patient is manifesting which psychosocial response to death?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anxiety about unfinished business. The patient's desire to settle issues with their siblings before death indicates a concern about unresolved matters. This response aligns with the concept of psychosocial responses to death, specifically the need for closure and resolution. Restlessness (choice A) may not necessarily indicate a specific focus on unfinished business. Yearning and protest (choice B) typically refer to the initial stages of grief, not specifically related to settling unresolved issues. Fear of the meaninglessness of one's life (choice D) is more existential and philosophical, whereas the patient's focus here is on addressing specific issues with their siblings.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse manager recognizes which action as an effectiveab sirtbr.acotmeg/teys tf or promoting changes in practice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it involves a structured approach to promoting changes in practice. By asking the clinical nurse specialist to lead a journal club on open visitation after each nurse reads a research article, it ensures that all nurses are informed and engaged in the topic. This approach promotes evidence-based practice and encourages active participation. Option B is less effective as discussing pros and cons at a staff meeting may not ensure that all nurses have the necessary knowledge to make informed decisions. Option C may not consider diverse perspectives and may not involve all staff members equally. Option D involves a select group of volunteers and may not reflect the views of the entire team. Overall, option A is the most inclusive and educational approach to promoting changes in practice.
Question 3 of 9
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse educator will determine that teaching arterial pressure monitoring to staff nurses has been effective when the nurse:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because positioning the zero-reference stopcock line level with the hemostatic axis ensures accurate arterial pressure monitoring. Placing the stopcock at the hemostatic axis allows for correct measurement of blood pressure without any errors due to height differences. This positioning helps in obtaining precise and reliable readings. A: Balancing and calibrating the monitoring equipment every 2 hours is important for equipment maintenance but does not directly impact the accuracy of arterial pressure monitoring. C: Ensuring the patient is supine with the head of the bed flat is a standard position for arterial pressure monitoring but does not specifically address the correct positioning of the stopcock. D: Rechecking the location of the hemostatic axis when changing the patient's position is essential for maintaining accuracy, but it does not directly relate to the initial correct positioning of the stopcock.
Question 4 of 9
Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a female client with severe postpartum depression who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because supervised and guided visits with the infant allow the client to bond with her baby in a safe and structured environment, promoting maternal-infant attachment while ensuring the safety and well-being of both. Restricting visitors who irritate the client (choice A) may increase feelings of isolation and distress. Full rooming-in for the infant and mother (choice B) may overwhelm the client with severe postpartum depression. Daily visits with her significant other (choice D) may not directly address the client's need for bonding with her infant.
Question 5 of 9
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tricyclic antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention, especially in the elderly. Morphine sulfate can also contribute to urinary retention. Antacids (A) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (C) are not known to cause urinary retention. Insulin (D) does not pose a risk for urinary retention in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse obtains the pulse rate of 89 beats/minute for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infants typically have higher resting heart rates than adults, so a pulse rate of 89 beats/minute for an infant may indicate bradycardia. Digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to potential adverse effects like arrhythmias. Therefore, withholding the medication and contacting the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure the safety of the infant. Choice B is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the elevated pulse rate can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as assessing respiratory rate does not address the immediate concern of the elevated pulse rate. Choice D is also incorrect as waiting and giving half of the dosage may further exacerbate the situation.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient’s urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The patient's symptoms of general malaise, fatigue, decreased urinary output, along with the presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicate kidney damage. Acute tubular necrosis is a common cause of acute kidney injury characterized by damage to the renal tubules, leading to impaired kidney function. The presence of granular casts and hematuria suggests tubular injury and bleeding within the kidney. Choices A and B are incorrect as they refer to prerenal and postrenal causes of kidney injury, respectively, which do not align with the patient's symptoms and urinalysis findings. Choice D is incorrect as a urinary tract infection would typically present with different symptoms and urinalysis findings.
Question 8 of 9
Complications common to patients receiving hemodialysis for acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, hypotension. During hemodialysis for acute kidney injury, fluid removal can lead to hypotension due to rapid changes in blood volume. This can cause dizziness, weakness, and even loss of consciousness. Dysrhythmias (choice B) are less common but can occur due to electrolyte imbalances. Muscle cramps (choice C) may occur during or after dialysis due to electrolyte imbalances or fluid shifts, but they are not as common as hypotension. Hemolysis (choice D) is not a common complication of hemodialysis for acute kidney injury, as it is more commonly associated with issues related to the dialysis machine or blood tubing.
Question 9 of 9
Anxiety differs from pain in that way? (Select all that app ly.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because anxiety is indeed linked to reward and punishment centers in the limbic system, specifically involving the amygdala and prefrontal cortex. This connection influences emotional responses and behaviors related to anxiety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anxiety involves both neurological and psychological processes beyond the brain, is highly subjective like pain, and can lead to physical symptoms without actual tissue injury.